Section 6: Passage 1 - Cell Proteins

This first essay is previously used in the chapter. You may choose to skip over it.

Nearly twenty years ago, biochemists found that a separable constituent of deoxyribonucleic acid (or DNA) appeared to guide the cell's protein-synthesizing machinery. The internal structure of DNA seemed to represent a set of coded instructions which dictated the pattern of protein-synthesis. Experiments indicated that in the presence of appropriate enzymes each DNA molecule could form a replica, a new DNA molecule, containing the specific guiding message present in the original. This idea, when added to what was already known about the cellular mechanisms of heredity (especially the knowledge that DNA is localized in chromosomes), appeared to establish a molecular basis for inheritance.

Proponents of the theory that DNA was a "self-duplicating" molecule, containing a code that by itself determined biological inheritance, introduced the term “central dogma” into scientific literature. They did so in order to describe the principles that could explain DNA's governing role. The dogma originally involved an admittedly unproven assumption that, whereas nucleic acids can guide the synthesis of other nucleic acids and of proteins, the reverse effect is impossible; that is, proteins cannot guide the synthesis of nucleic acids. But actual experimental observations deny the second and crucial part of this assumption. Other test-tube experiments show that agents besides DNA have a guiding influence. The kind of protein that is made may depend on the specific organism from which the necessary enzyme is obtained. It also depends on the test tube's temperature, the degree of acidity, and the amount of metallic salts present.

The central dogma banishes from consideration the interactions among the numerous molecular processes that have been discovered in cells or in their extracted fluids. In the living cell, molecular processes—the synthesis of nucleic acids and proteins or the oxidation of food substance - are not separate but interact in exceedingly complex ways. No matter how many ingredients the biochemists' test tubes may contain, the mixtures are nonliving. However, these same ingredients, organized by the subtle structure of the cell, constitute a system, which is alive.

Consider an example from another field. At ordinary temperatures, electricity flows only so long as a driving force from a battery or generator is imposed upon the circuit. At temperatures near absolute zero, metals exhibit superconductivity: a unique property that causes an electric current to flow for months after the voltage is cut off. Although independent electrons exist in a metal at ordinary temperatures, at very low temperatures they interact with the metal's atomic structure in such a way as to lose their individual identities and form a coordinated, collective system which gives rise to superconductivity.

Such discoveries of modern physics show that the unique properties of a complex system are not necessarily explicable solely by the properties that can be observed in its isolated parts. We can expect to find a similar situation in the complex chemical system of the living cells.

1. The author is primarily concerned with

(A) Proposing that a new philosophical foundation for modern biochemistry be developed.
(B) Describing the various processes that take place in a living cell.
(C) Drawing analogies between different scientific fields.
(D) Revealing a discrepancy between a scientific theory and some experimental results.
(E) Questioning the assumptions behind experimental methods in science.

2. The author provides information that would answer which of the following questions?

I. What have test-tube experiments revealed about the role of DNA?
II. What viruses interfere with DNA replication?
III. What methods have been developed to allow scientists to observe a living cell?

(A)  I only
(B) II only
(C)  I and III only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II and III

3. The author's argument is directed against which of the following?

I. The use of test-tube experimentation alone to establish the validity of scientific theories
II. The exclusion of experimental facts from the formation of scientific theories
III. The observation of certain cellular components in isolation.

(A)  I only
(B)  I and II only
(C)  I and III only
(D)  II and III only
(E)  I, II and III

4. The author refers to the results of test-tube experiments involving the replication of DNA primarily in order to

(A) Question the validity of experimental results that describe the structure of DNA.
(B) Provide evidence to contradict the theory that DNA alone governs protein synthesis.
(C) Show the way in which DNA acts as a self-duplicating molecule.
(D) Explain the internal structure of DNA.
(E) Reveal how nucleic acid can influence the synthesis of proteins.

5. According to the passage, a metal cannot become super-conductive unless

(A) The voltage through the metal is increased.
(B) The metal's atomic structure has been destroyed.
(C) The metal is exposed to very low temperatures.
(D) Electrons in the metal interact with one another at ordinary temperatures.
(E) Electrical flow is provided by a battery.

6. The author suggests that the most important difference observed between a dead cell and a living cell results primarily from the

(A) Differences in the chemical elements present in each.
(B) Differences in the degree of acidity present in each.
(C) Biochemical procedures used to examine each cell.
(D) Varying temperatures at which cells are examined.
(E) Integrating mechanism thought to exist within the structure of the living cell.

7. The experimental results mentioned in the passage suggest that biological inheritance depends on

(A) Instructions contained in a single molecule within the cell.
(B) Processes that are guided by specific enzymes.
(C) Genetic information contained in metallic salts.
(D) Interactions among several molecular processes in the cell.
(E) Replicative processes within the chemistry of protein synthesis.

8. The author presents his argument primarily by

(A) Contrasting two fields of science.
(B) Providing experimental evidence against a point of view.
(C) Criticizing proponents of other theories.
(D) Stating a new theory and its important implications.
(E) Comparing two theories of cellular structure.

Play by Play

1. What is the passage type?

Subject: Science

Action: Persuade

2. What is each paragraph about?

P1: DNA is the molecular basis of inheritance.
P2: DNA does not act alone. The reality is more complicated.
P3: Cells are really complicated and the parts work together.
P4: Metals are complicated and the parts work together (just like in cells).
P5: Cells are complicated and highly coordinated systems.

3. What is the organization?

This is a theory / counter-theory passage.

Old Theory:		Protein synthesis is a simple matter of DNA
Problem with theory:		Other agents influence protein synthesis
Implication of problem:		Cells are complicated, coordinated systems
Explanatory analogy:		Example of superconductivity metals
Summary:		Cells are complicated, coordinated systems

4. What is the big idea?
Cells are so complex that the current theory doesn't do them justice.

5. What is the author's purpose?
The author wants you to know that Native Americans were empowered to do their own study and came to different conclusions than the outsiders who studied them in the past. This essay has a politically correct sensibility (trying to counter criticism of Native Americans).

Explanations

1. The author is primarily concerned with

A) Proposing that a new philosophical foundation for modern biochemistry be developed.
B) Describing the various processes that take place in a living cell.
C) Drawing analogies between different scientific fields.
D) Revealing a discrepancy between a scientific theory and some experimental results.
E) Questioning the assumptions behind experimental methods in science.

Type: Main Idea
(D) The third sentence in the second paragraph tells us that the author's primary concern is that actual experimental observations deny the assumptions of scientific theory. ("But actual experimental observations deny the second and crucial part of this assumption."). The last paragraph emphasizes this discrepancy. This question asks you to find the best summary of the author's ideas, and therefore requires an understanding of the passage as a whole. (difficulty level 500 on a scale from 200 to 800)

2. The author provides information that would answer which of the following questions?

I. What have test-tube experiments revealed about the role of DNA?
II. What viruses interfere with DNA replication?
III. What methods have been developed to allow scientists to observe a living cell?

A)  I only
B) II only
C)  I and III only
D) II and III only
E) I, II and III

Type: Detail of the passage
(A) The first option, “What have test-tube experiments revealed about the role of DNA,” is supported by the passage in the second paragraph. No information is provided for the other options. This question requires one to look back to the passage for evidence of each choice. (difficulty level 300 on a scale from 200 to 800).

3. The author's argument is directed against which of the following?

I. The use of test-tube experimentation alone to establish the validity of scientific theories
II. The exclusion of experimental facts from the formation of scientific theories
III. The observation of certain cellular components in isolation.

A)  I only
B)  I and II only
C)  I and III only
D)  II and III only
E)  I, II and III

Type: Detail of the passage
(E) The last sentence of the third paragraph shows that the author is against the use of test-tube experimentation alone to establish the validity of scientific theories. The last paragraph also tells us that the author is against options II and III. Hence, (E) is the correct answer. This question requires a scanning of the entire passage. I and II deal with our author's crusade of experimentation versus dogma. III is our author's concern with complexity versus simple isolation. (difficulty level 400 on a scale from 200 to 800)

4. The author refers to the results of test-tube experiments involving the replication of DNA primarily in order to

A) Question the validity of experimental results that describe the structure of DNA.
B) Provide evidence to contradict the theory that DNA alone governs protein synthesis.
C) Show the way in which DNA acts as a self-duplicating molecule.
D) Explain the internal structure of DNA.
E) Reveal how nucleic acid can influence the synthesis of proteins.

Type: Function of a part of the passage
(B) In the last three sentences of the second paragraph, the author says that there was "an admittedly unproven assumption that, whereas nucleic acids can guide the synthesis in other nucleic acids and of proteins, the reverse effect is impossible. However, actual experimental observations deny the second and crucial part of this assumption." Other test-tube experiments show that agents besides DNA have a guiding influence. The answer relates to experiment vs. established dogma. The answer is directly available from the second paragraph but requires an understanding of the context. (difficulty level 300 on a scale from 200 to 800)

5. According to the passage, a metal cannot become super conductive unless

A) The voltage through the metal is increased.
B) The metal's atomic structure has been destroyed.
C) The metal is exposed to very low temperatures.
D) Electrons in the metal interact with one another at ordinary temperatures.
E) Electrical flow is provided by a battery.

Type: Detail of the passage
(C) The third sentence of the fourth paragraph states that “At temperatures near absolute zero, metals exhibit superconductivity; a unique property that causes an electric current to flow for months after the voltage is cut off." This question is just a fact check from the essay and doesn't test any real understanding. (difficulty level 200 on a scale from 200 to 800)

6. The author suggests that the most important difference observed between a dead cell and a living cell results primarily from the

A) Differences in the chemical elements present in each.
B) Differences in the degree of acidity present in each.
C) Biochemical procedures used to examine each cell.
D) Varying temperatures at which cells are examined.
E) Integrating mechanism thought to exist within the structure of the living cell.

Type: Detail of the passage
(E) The last line of the third paragraph illustrates that "No matter how many ingredients the biochemists' test tubes may contain, the mixtures are nonliving. However, these same ingredients, organized by the subtle structure of the cell, constitute a system, which is alive." Again, this ties into the author's theme of complexity. (difficulty level 300 on a scale from 200 to 800)

7. The experimental results mentioned in the passage suggest that biological inheritance depends on

A) Instructions contained in a single molecule within the cell.
B) Processes that are guided by specific enzymes.
C) Genetic information contained in metallic salts.
D) Interactions among several molecular processes in the cell.
E) Replicative processes within the chemistry of protein synthesis

Type: Detail of the passage
(D) The second sentence in the third paragraph states, "In the living cell, molecular processes—the synthesis of nucleic acids and proteins or the oxidation of food substance—are not separate but interact in exceedingly complex ways.” You didn't even have to look this up, though, because if you clearly understood the author's thinking, it would be easy. The answer is directly available and needs no inference. (difficulty level 300 on a scale from 200 to 800)

8. The author presents his argument primarily by

A) Contrasting two fields of science.
B) Providing experimental evidence against a point of view.
C) Criticizing proponents of other theories.
D) Stating a new theory and its important implications.
E) Comparing two theories of cellular structure.

Type: Organization of the passage
(B) This question is asking you to remember the author's main point and then explain how he or she makes it. (B) states just this: the experiments the author refers to and their refuting of the "dogma." (D) may have tricked you since the author is discussing his theory, but this essay is railing against an established point of view and not an introduction of a new theory. (difficulty level 500 on a scale from 200 to 800)

Section 6: Passage 2 - Black Poetry in the 1960's

If the 1950s was a sparse period for Black poetry, the 1960s more than compensated for it; during the 1960s, Black poets appeared all over the United States. By the end of the decade not only had poetic giants such as Melvin Tolson, LeRoi Jones, Gwendolyn Brooks, Robert Hayden, and Langston Hughes reappeared with new volumes of poetry, but also at least five anthologies of Black poetry were published. Some of the new Black poets made their debuts in the anthologies. Others were first published in Harlem's new avant-garde literary publication, Umbra. As the decade drew to a close, the "Broadside Press" poets appeared through Dudley Randall's series of Broadside Press editions and in Hoyt Fuller's Negro Digest, which was later known as Black World. These poets brought with them new poetic concepts, a new aesthetic, and a strong awareness of the Black ghetto experience.

Like the spirituals and the secular songs of slavery, the new Black poetry burst forth out of a time of racial turmoil. The catalyst for creativity was a series of events beginning with the Montgomery bus boycott and encompassing the nonviolent sit-in demonstrations of the early 1960's and big-city riots of the mid-1960s. Behind the poets and their songs of bitter protest against racism in America, were the bombings, the assassinations, the burning ghettos, the screaming sirens, the violent confrontations, and the cruel awareness of spreading Black poverty amid white affluence.

The most forthrightly militant representatives of the new Black mood in poetry were the Broadside Press poets ­ so called because their poems are social, political, and moral broadsides protesting against the body politic and the establishment. Before the Broadside Press poets emerged as a definable literary group, other poets had written protest poetry in the early 1960s, which was caustic, bitter, and at times mordantly cynical. But the poetry became more than bitter militant protest. Under the leadership of LeRoi Jones and others, there developed a Black aesthetic that, in one measure, prescribed the guidelines for Black poetic militancy. Under the racial pressures of the late 1950's and early 1960's Jones himself had undergone a metamorphosis, moving from an avant-garde aestheticism to a Black nationalism-activism.

In the process, he abandoned his "slave" name and became Imamu Amiri Baraka. He also moved out of the deep melancholy and pessimism that permeate many of his earlier poems. His "Black Art" indicates that his pessimism was replaced by a vigilant and militant activism. Indeed, "Black Art" announces the credo of the new Black aesthetic—that the direct objective of all Black artistic expression is to achieve social change and moral and political revolution. Poems, Jones asserts, should be "fists and daggers and pistols to clean up the sordid Black world for virtue and love".

1. It can be inferred from the passage that the Broadside Press poets believed that poetry should be primarily

a) Entertaining
b)  Descriptive
c)  Aesthetic
d)  Escapist
e)  Remonstrative

2. The author mentions all of the following as indications of the new importance of Black poetry in the 1960's EXCEPT

a)  The appearance of several anthologies of Black poetry.
b)  The appearance of new literary journals for Black literature.
c)  Courses in Black literature at most colleges and universities.
d)  New volumes of poetry by established Black writers.
e)  The emergence of a committed Black literary group.

3. The primary purpose of the passage is to

a)  Discuss the strengths and weaknesses of a new literary group.
b)  Compare contrasting literary movements.
c)  Analyze the impact of a literary movement on American social structure.
d)  Describe a literary movement and the factors that influenced it.
e)  Outline the history of a literary genre.

4. It is most likely that immediately preceding this passage the author had discussed

a)  Black poetry of the 1950's
b)  Black prose of the 1960's
c)  Some minor Black poets of the 1960's
d)  The racial atmosphere of America in the 1960's
e)  The new periodicals devoted to Black literature

5. According to the passage, the new Black poetry was characterized by

a)  Individual introspection
b)  Profound despair
c)  Moral pessimism
d)  Psychological detachment
e)  Social protest

6. According to the passage, the flourishing of Black poetry during the 1960's was chiefly a reflection of

a)  An increased awareness of Black cultural heritage.
B)  A renewed interest in the work of older Black poets.
c)  The feeling that poetry is more expressive than prose.
d)  The racial trouble in the United States at the time.
e)  New goals the older Black writers had set for themselves.

7. The passage implies that LeRoi Jones' main contribution to the new Black poetry was to

a)  Make other Black writers more aware of social conditions.
b)  Attract the attention of Whites to Black literature.
c)  Provide a link between the older and the younger generations of Black writers.
d)  Provide the philosophy of the new Black literature.
e)  Serve as a personal example of what the artist's role should be.

8. In which of the following ways is the passage organized?

a) A phenomenon is discussed and then further explained by its appearances in history
b) A trend is described, followed by an example of a group which exemplified that trend.
c) A hypothesis is stated and then proven through historical examples
d) A group is praised for its historical merits and then shown to be part of a larger movement
e) A perspective is analyzed and then called into question

Play by Play

1. What is the passage type?

Subject: Culture
Action:  Describe


2. What is each paragraph about?
P1: Appearance of black poets in the 60s
P2: Like everything else in the 60s, black poetry sprang from social upheaval
P3: Major example of activist-poets: Broadside Poets

3. What is the organization?
This is a general to specific passage. We start with a general trend in Black poetry and end with a major example, the Broadside Poets.

P1 Explanatory: Lays out the setting: Black poetry in the 60s ". . . during the 1960s, Black poets appeared all over the United States"

P2 Explanatory: Describes cause of new poetry: racial turmoil "Like the spirituals and the secular songs of slavery, the new Black poetry burst forth out of a time of racial turmoil"

P3 Respectful/Explanatory: Introduces noteworthy example of poetry: Broadside Poets ". . . there developed a Black aesthetic that, in one measure, prescribed the guidelines for Black poetic militancy"

P4 Respectful/Explanatory: Describes new philosophy represented by Broadside Poets: object of Black art is to achieve social change ". . . the credo of the new Black aesthetic . . . the direct objective of all Black artistic expression is to achieve social change and moral and political revolution".

The Big Idea: Racial turmoil led to a flurry of black writing in the 1960s designed to effect social change.

Contrast between eras:		50s vs. 60s for poetry
Force responsible for change:		Social changes that led to rise in poetry
Important example:		Broadside Poets

4. What is the big idea?
Racial turmoil led to a flurry of black writing in the 1960s designed to affect social change.

Explanations

1. It can be inferred from the passage that the Broadside Press poets believed that poetry should be primarily

a) Entertaining
b) Descriptive
c) Aesthetic
d) Escapist
e) Remonstrative

Type: Inference
(E) Reading through the passage, the key word mentioned about the poetry of the Broadside Press poets is protest. Remonstrate means to protest or to argue forcibly. Hence (E) is the right choice. If you don't know what "remonstrate" means, you can still solve this question by eliminating all of the other answer choices when they do not fit your understanding of poetry's purpose in the passage. All other choices use words from the passage but none are relevant to the Broadside press. This question requires you to understand the basic purpose of poetry for the Broadside Press poets and translate that purpose into a single, descriptive word. (500)

2. The author mentions all of the following as indications of the new importance of Black poetry in the 1960's EXCEPT

a) The appearance of several anthologies of Black poetry.
b) The appearance of new literary journals for Black literature.
c) Courses in Black literature at most colleges and universities.
d) New volumes of poetry by established Black writers.
e) The emergence of a committed Black literary group.

Type: Detail of the passage
(C) All except (C) are mentioned as indication of the new importance of Black poetry in the 1960s. This is a clear and straightforward question that can be answered simply by referring back to the details contained in paragraph 1. You can rule out the other answer choices when you see them in the passage. (300)

3. The primary purpose of the passage is to

a) Discuss the strengths and weaknesses of a new literary group.
b) Compare contrasting literary movements.
c) Analyze the impact of a literary movement on American social structure.
d) Describe a literary movement and the factors that influenced it.
e) Outline the history of a literary genre.

Type: Purpose of the passage
(D) The primary purpose of the passage is to describe the Black literary movement and factors like the awareness of spreading Black poverty amid white affluence that led to the literary movement. Hence (D) covers this well and comprehensively. The other choices either hint at only partial objectives of the passage or relate to unsupported arguments. (A) is incorrect because there are no weaknesses discussed; (B) because there is no comparison; (C) because no impact on social structure is discussed, and (E) because, although a history is discussed, this isn't a historical outline. (600)

4. It is most likely that immediately preceding this passage the author had discussed

a) Black poetry of the 1950's
b) Black prose of the 1960's
c) Some minor Black poets of the 1960's
d) The racial atmosphere of America in the 1960's
e) The new periodicals devoted to Black literature

Type: Inference
(A) The author begins by comparing the sparse collection of Black poetry in the 1950s to the wealth of poetry from Blacks in the 1960s. The author then goes on to describe the explosion of Black poetry in the 1960s. Hence the proceeding passage would discuss (A). For this question one needs to just read the beginning of the passage; paragraph 1 provides all the evidence. (400)


5. According to the passage, the new Black poetry was characterized by

a) Individual introspection
b) Profound despair
c) Moral pessimism
d) Psychological detachment
e) Social protest

Type: Detail of the passage
(E) Evidence from paragraphs 1 and 2 highlight that the new Black poetry was characterized by bitter protest against racism in America. Hence choice (E). (300)

6. According to the passage, the flourishing of Black poetry during the 1960's was chiefly a reflection of

a) An increased awareness of Black cultural heritage.
b) A renewed interest in the work of older Black poets.
c) The feeling that poetry is more expressive than prose.
d) The racial trouble in the United States at the time.
e) New goals the older Black writers had set for themselves.

Type: Inference
(D) Paragraph 2 sums the influencing factor behind the 1960s backlash of Black poetry in the United States. The question is partially evidence supported and partially based on your ability to translate what you read into a summary of the paragraph. (400)

7. The passage implies that LeRoi Jones' main contribution to the new Black poetry was to

a) Make other Black writers more aware of social conditions.
b) Attract the attention of Whites to Black literature.
c) Provide a link between the older and the younger generations of Black writers.
d) Provide the philosophy of the new Black literature.
e)  Serve as a personal example of what the artist's role should be.

Type: Inference
(D) Paragraph 3 says that under the leadership of LeRoi Jones there developed a Black aesthetic that in some measure prescribed the guidelines for Black poetic militancy. This is clearly captured by Choice (D). The question is partially evidence supported and partially based on your ability to translate what you read into a summary of the paragraph. (A) may have been true, but there was nothing specific about him doing this. (B) and (C) are not mentioned and can be immediately ruled out. (E) is close, but the essay describes LeRoi's leadership and ideas rather than specifically what he did as an example. This is a subtle distinction that makes (D) the better answer. (500)

8. In which of the following ways is the passage organized?

a) A phenomenon is discussed and then further explained by its appearances in history
b) A trend is described, followed by an example of a group which exemplified that trend.
c) A hypothesis is stated and then proven through historical examples
d) A group is praised for its historical merits and then shown to be part of a larger movement
e) A perspective is analyzed and then called into question

Type: Organization of the passage
(B) The passage runs from general to specific, describing the trend of black poetry in the 60s and ending with the Broadside Poets, a highly respected group of black writers working during this time. Therefore, (B) is correct. This passage is about a specific time in history, namely the 1960s, so (A) is incorrect as it refers to many appearances of a phenomenon through time. There is no hypothesis contained in the passage, since the author simply discusses writers and their activism. Therefore (C) is incorrect. (D) is tricky because it presents (B) backwards. In truth, the group is praised after the larger movement is described, not before it. (E) is wrong because, as stated earlier, the passage simply discusses writers and their activism and does not call into question his/her or anyone's perspective. (700)

Section 6: Passage 3 - Native American Self-Image

As sociologists Trimble and Medicine point out in a survey paper published in 1966, many of the studies dealing with the Native American (Indian) experience have tended to focus on negative aspects of Native American life and have characterized the Native American in a negative vein. Prominent among these negative characterizations is the contention that Native Americans tend to have low self-esteem.

In 1973 a small group of Native American professionals challenged the accuracy of these negative reports. Their experiences suggested to them that most Native Americans viewed themselves positively. After a series of discussions they formulated a research task—specifically, “What would the self-image of the Native American be if it were researched by Native Americans?”.

In due course, an official research project was initiated. A crucial feature of the project was the formation of a Native American advisory board, consisting of community representatives from different regions of the country. One of the purposes of the advisory board was to help dispel any antagonism that there might be against the presence of social scientists in Native American communities. In some of those communities, unfortunately, social scientists had come to be resented as “predators merely using the Native American to further their own careers”.

Another important function of the advisory board was to assist in identifying trained Native American interviewers for data collection. The idea of using local residents as interviewers was rejected early on since it was felt that respondents might be concerned, however needlessly, that personal information might eventually turn into community gossip. The board opted for selection of culturally sensitive nonresidents as interviewers.

The board also had a hand in shaping the survey questionnaire to be used. Since time constraints made it impossible to devise a questionnaire that would have been sensitive to the full diversity of the many distinct Native American groups or tribes, a compromise solution had to be settled on that would tap commonalities particular to Native Americans.

Finally, a total of 792 Native Americans ranging in age from 17 to over 80 and representing over 150 tribal and Alaska Native groups were administered a 309-page questionnaire.

One hundred and nine respondents also completed open-ended interviews. Questionnaire items clustered around 38 subscales that yielded indices of self-regard, values, philosophy of human nature, locus of control, and satisfaction with life. Items contained in the interviews served to validate questionnaire responses and supplement the questionnaire data with situation-specific information. Findings included the following: (a) at least 95 percent of the respondents have a moderate to strong sense of self-regard that is stable and enduring; (b) there is a high degree of consistency of positive self-regard irrespective of sex, tribe, and age; and (c) persons with a strong sense of self-regard also tend to have a strong sense of personal values.

1. The primary purpose of the passage is to

a) Present a piece of research on Native Americans as a model for other researchers to emulate.
b)  Describe some of the background, methods, and results of a study of Native Americans' self-regard.
c)  Analyze the efficacy of advisory boards in social science research.
d)  Contrast the questionnaire method in social science with the method of open-ended interviews.
e)  Discuss the conceptual difficulties in investigating self-regard through groups of questions clustering around subscales.

2. According to the passage, hostility toward social scientists in some Native American communities resulted from the communities' perception that

a)  Many of the social scientists focused unduly on negative aspects of community life.
b)  None of the social scientists employed local residents as interviewers.
c)  None of the social scientists used questionnaires sufficiently sensitive to those Communities' distinctive cultural backgrounds.
d)  The social scientists carried out their studies for their own professional benefit only.
e)  Native American advisory boards; where used, were not truly representative of the diversity of Native American tribes.

3. The author of the passage views the fact that some Native American communities perceived social scientists as "predatory" with

a)  Alarm
b)  Suspicion
c)  Contrition
d)  Empathy
e)  Regret

4. It can be inferred from the passage that those designing the study wished to ensure that

a)  The identity of those completing open-ended interviews was made publicly known in advance.
b)  No respondents were selected from communities known to have been hostile to social scientists.
c)  Data collection was carried out by interviewers thoroughly versed in sociological theory.
d)  The confidentiality of any information gained would be protected to the respondents' satisfaction.
e)  Any success the study might have would not directly lead to career advancement for any of them.

5. The author's purpose in the passage is most probably to make more accessible to the public

a)  Certain innovative ideas of a group of Native American professionals.
b)  A fundamental critique of all of social science research.
c)  A well-supported corrective to a body of questionable assertions.
d)  The optimistic projections made by the Native American advisory board.
e)  A number of intuitively appealing but largely speculative notions.

6. The wording of the research task formulated by the group of Native American professionals as quoted in the last sentence of the second paragraph suggests that

a)  There had been no previous research on the self-image of Native Americans conducted by Native Americans.
b)  Reports about the self-image of Native Americans had been difficult to reconcile with one another.
c)  The group of Native American professionals had commissioned the survey paper by Trimble and Medicine.
d)  Research into the self-image of Native Americans was intended to be preliminary to a larger research program.
e)  Informal polls had led the group of Native American professionals to question existing characterizations of Native American self-esteem.

7. The author of the passage ascribes to which of the following a particularly important role in the design of the study?

a)  Sociologists Trimble and Medicine.
b)  Local residents serving as interviewers.
c)  The Native American advisory board.
d)  The group of Native American professionals challenging the previous studies.
e)  The communities that were resentful of social scientists.

8. The passage suggests that the researchers conducting the study would be most likely to agree with which of the following principles?

a)  Social science research should carefully balance studies of negative aspects of society with studies of positive aspects.
b)  Social science research on ethnic and/or racial groups should be carried out by researchers who themselves belong to the groups studied.
c)  Social scientists should adopt a general policy of reimbursing their respondents for the time spent on questionnaires and/or interviews.
d)  Social scientists should make their research results available in a form readily accessible to the group or groups they have studied.
e)  Social scientists should concentrate on studies that promise results that can be utilized for purposes of practical policy making.

Play by Play

1. What is the passage type?

Subject: Social science
Action:  Describe

2. What is each paragraph about?

P1: Studies of Native Americans focus on the negative and find low self esteem.

P2: Native American question: if Native Americans did the study, would the conclusions be the same?

P3: A study run with Native Americans was started.

P4: Native American interviewers were used. To watch privacy, interviewers were not directly involved in these groups.

P5: Compromises were made to keep the study on track and culturally sensitive at the same time.

P6: Numbers, numbers, numbers.

P7: The new study's result: good self-esteem is prevalent among Native Americans.

3. What is the organization?

This passage is organized from general to specific. In the beginning, we hear about a study “by Native Americans, of Native Americans” and then we learn about this study and its results.

P1 Descriptive: Provides the setting: Studies find that Native Americans have low self esteem "Prominent among [findings of studies] is . . . that Native Americans tend to have low self-esteem".

P2 Descriptive: Introduces a question related to setting: what would a study by Native Americans find? ". . . a small group of Native American professionals challenged the accuracy of these negative reports."

P3 Descriptive/Positive: Describes how question was answered: Native American advisory board guided study "In due course, an official research project was initiated."

P4 Descriptive/Positive: Describes another function of advisory board—to choose interviewers who are "culturally sensitive nonresidents. "

P5 Descriptive/Positive: Describes yet another function of advisory board: help create survey "Another important function of the advisory board was assistance in identifying trained Native American interviewers for data collection."

P6 Descriptive: Survey was administered to answer question "[The participants were] . . . Administered the survey

P7 Descriptive: Presents results of study to address question: a study by Native Americans finds high self esteem "at least 95 percent of the respondents have a moderate to strong sense of self-regard . . . "

Existing studies:		Focus on negative
Hypothetical change:		Would Native Americans get the same results?
Description of new situation: part 1		Study set up
Description of new situation: part 2		Interviewers
Description of new situation: part 3		More on interviewers
Description of new situation: part 4		The Numbers
Results		Findings are positive: good self-esteem.

4. What is the big idea?
Native Americans conduct their own study of Native American self-image and come out with findings that are more positive than those of previous studies. This is a "political correct" essay. Once you see the essay mentions an ethnic group, you always know that the essay praises that group.

5. What is the author’s purpose?
The author wants you to know that Native Americans were empowered to do their own study and came to different conclusions than the outsiders who studied them in the past.

Explanations

1. The primary purpose of the passage is to

a) Present a piece of research on Native Americans as a model for other researchers to emulate.
b)  Describe some of the background, methods, and results of a study of Native Americans' self-regard.
c)  Analyze the efficacy of advisory boards in social science research.
d)  Contrast the questionnaire method in social science with the method of open-ended interviews.
e)  Discuss the conceptual difficulties in investigating self-regard through groups of questions clustering around subscales.

Type: Purpose of the passage
(B) is correct, because it covers the main topics of the passage. This question demands from you a complete understanding of the passage and the ability to summarize it in a sentence. The other choices address only parts of the purpose of the passage and introduce new assumptions that are not mentioned in the passage. (E) mentions the conducting of studies on Native Americans, so it seems like it could be a possibility, but (E) also focuses on the "subscales" which is a fairly insignificant detail in the passage, and therefore does not explain the main idea. (500)

2. According to the passage, hostility toward social scientists in some Native American communities resulted from the communities' perception that

a)  Many of the social scientists focused unduly on negative aspects of community life.
b)  None of the social scientists employed local residents as interviewers.
c)  None of the social scientists used questionnaires sufficiently sensitive to those Communities' distinctive cultural backgrounds.
d)  The social scientists carried out their studies for their own professional benefit only.
e)  Native American advisory boards; where used, were not truly representative of the diversity of Native American tribes.

Type: Detail of the passage
(D) "According to the passage" tells us the answer is located directly inside the passage. The last sentence of the third paragraph shows how Native Americans resented social scientists as predators using Native Americans to further their own careers. Hence (D) is correct. This is a very straight forward application of data from the passage. (300)



3. The author of the passage views the fact that some Native American communities perceived social scientists as "predatory" with

a)  Alarm
b)  Suspicion
c)  Contrition
d)  Empathy
e)  Regret

Type: Tone
(E). The word 'unfortunately' in the last sentence of the third paragraph indicates that the author regrets the view of some Native Americans towards social scientists as predatory. The other choices play upon the rhetoric of the passage without addressing the right meaning. Check your answer by eliminating all of the other answer choices. This question tests the ability of the student to translate a word into the summarized meaning of the sentence and measure the author's intended tone. (500)

4. It can be inferred from the passage that those designing the study wished to ensure that

a)  The identity of those completing open-ended interviews was made publicly known in advance.
b)  No respondents were selected from communities known to have been hostile to social scientists.
c)  Data collection was carried out by interviewers thoroughly versed in sociological theory.
d)  The confidentiality of any information gained would be protected to the respondents' satisfaction.
e)  Any success the study might have would not directly lead to career advancement for any of them.

Type: Inference
(D) In the fourth paragraph we are told that those designing the study rejected the idea of local residents as interviewers because the researchers were concerned that community members might be afraid to answer truthfully, since personnel information might lead to gossip. Many of the other choices like (E), (A) and (B) might sound true because they address some other aspect of the passage but still they don’t encapsulate the central idea. This is a difficult question because of the slightly ambiguous choices. It measures the ability to qualitatively derive an answer. (600)

5. The author's purpose in the passage is most probably to make more accessible to the public

a)  Certain innovative ideas of a group of Native American professionals.
b)  A fundamental critique of all of social science research.
c)  A well-supported corrective to a body of questionable assertions.
d)  The optimistic projections made by the Native American advisory board.
e)  A number of intuitively appealing but largely speculative notions.

Type: Purpose of the passage
(C) The questionable assertion that Native Americans have low self-esteem, arrived at by studies dealing with the Native American experience, has been corrected by well-supported research, which led to results contrary to previous research done in this area. Hence choice (C) correctly summarizes the central idea as required. The choices here are very subtly different and one needs to eliminate each of them carefully in line with the central theme of the passage. (700)

6. The wording of the research task formulated by the group of Native American professionals as quoted in the last sentence of the second paragraph suggests that

a)  There had been no previous research on the self-image of Native Americans conducted by Native Americans.
b)  Reports about the self-image of Native Americans had been difficult to reconcile with one another.
c)  The group of Native American professionals had commissioned the survey paper by Trimble and Medicine.
d)  Research into the self-image of Native Americans was intended to be preliminary to a larger research program.
e)  Informal polls had led the group of Native American professionals to question existing characterizations of Native American self-esteem.

Type: Inference
(A) The question asked at the end of the paragraph clearly implies that Native Americans have conducted no research on the self-image of Native Americans themselves. Hence choice (A) gives the best answer. This is a factual question but one that can be easily missed if the thread of the passage is not followed carefully. You must infer, from the question asked in the passage, that Native Americans had no yet done research on their own self-image. (300)

7. The author of the passage ascribes to which of the following a particularly important role in the design of the study?

a)  Sociologists Trimble and Medicine.
b)  Local residents serving as interviewers.
c)  The Native American advisory board.
d)  The group of Native American professionals challenging the previous studies.
e)  The communities that were resentful of social scientists.

Type: Detail of the passage
(C) Sociologists Tremble and Medicine pointed out that research on Native Americans tended to focus on negative aspects. Native American professionals challenged the results of previous studies. However, it was the Native American advisory board that sought to dispel antagonism against social scientists, opted for selection of culturally sensitive nonresidents as interviewers, and shaped the survey questionnaire which was sensitive to the full diversity of the many distinct Native American tribes or groups. Hence choice (C). (A) can be eliminated as it was just a mention of Tremble and Medicine's initial paper; (B) is something that the author refutes in the passage, (D) is a central theme and not the role in designing a study, and finally (E) is just a minor point being re-stated from the passage. All the choices appear in the passage but only one actually addresses the question. Hence, it makes it that much more important to hold onto the idea being asked in the question. (300)

8. The passage suggests that the researchers conducting the study would be most likely to agree with which of the following principles?

a)  Social science research should carefully balance studies of negative aspects of society with studies of positive aspects.
b)  Social science research on ethnic and/or racial groups should be carried out by researchers who themselves belong to the groups studied.
c)  Social scientists should adopt a general policy of reimbursing their respondents for the time spent on questionnaires and/or interviews.
d)  Social scientists should make their research results available in a form readily accessible to the group or groups they have studied.
e)  Social scientists should concentrate on studies that promise results that can be utilized for purposes of practical policy making.

Type: Inference
(B) The passage suggests that when researchers do not belong to the ethnic and/or racial groups that they are studying the results may not always be accurate. The entire passage is the description of how a study conducted by Native Americans themselves on their own community corrected the negative assertions made by researchers who were not Native Americans. Hence choice (B) gives the best answer. Choice (A) sounds plausible but is not supported by the passage, and similarly choice (C), (D) and (E) are not factual. You are asked to look at the researcher's values (evident in the make-up of the study they did on Native Americans). Then, based on their attitude in the passage, you are to make an educated guess as to what opinion they might have about how other studies of racial or ethnic groups should be done. (500)

Section 6: Passage 4 - Acclimatization

This first essay is previously used in the chapter. You may choose to skip over it.

As in the case of so many words used by the biologist and physiologist, the word acclimatization is hard to define. With increases in scientific knowledge and understanding, meanings of words change. Originally the term acclimatization was taken to mean only the ability of human beings, animals or plants to accustom themselves to new and strange climatic conditions, primarily altered temperature. A person or a wolf moves to a hot climate and is uncomfortable there, but after a time is better able to withstand the heat. But aside from temperature, there are other aspects of climate. A person or an animal may become adjusted to living at higher altitudes than those it was originally accustomed to. At very high altitudes, such as those that aviators may be exposed to low atmospheric pressure becomes a factor of primary importance. In changing to a new environment, a person may, meet new conditions of temperature or pressure, and in addition may have to contend with different chemical surroundings. On high mountains, the amount of oxygen in the atmosphere may be relatively small; in crowded cities, a person may become exposed to relatively high concentrations of carbon dioxide or even carbon monoxide, and in various areas may be exposed to conditions in which the water content of the atmosphere is extremely high or extremely low. Thus, in the case of humans, animalsand even plants, the concept of acclimatization includes the phenomena of increased toleration of high or low temperature, of altered pressure, and of changes in the chemical environment.

Let us define acclimatization, therefore, as the process in which an organism or a part of an organism becomes inured to an environment which is normally unsuitable to it or lethal for it. By and large, acclimatization is a relatively slow process. The term should not be taken to include relatively rapid adjustments such as those that our sense organs are constantly making. This type of adjustment is commonly referred to by physiologists as "adaptation." Thus, our touch sense soon becomes accustomed to the pressure of our clothes and we do not feel them; we soon fail to hear the ticking of a clock; obnoxious orders after a time fail to make much impression on us, and our eyes in strong light rapidly become insensitive.

The fundamental fact about acclimatization is that all animals and plants have some capacity to adjust themselves to changes in their environment. This is one of the most remarkable characteristics of living organisms, a characteristic for which it is extremely difficult to find explanations.  

1. According to the reading selection, all animals and plants

(A) have an ability for acclimatization.
(B) can adjust to only one change in the environment at a time.
(C) are successful in adjusting themselves to changes in their environments.
(D) can adjust to natural changes in the environment but not to artificially induced changes.
(E) that have once acclimatized themselves to an environmental change can acclimatize themselves more rapidly to subsequent changes.

2. It can be inferred from the reading selection that

(A) every change in the environment requires acclimatization by living things.
(B) plants and animals are more alike than they are different.
(C) biologist and physiologists study essentially the same things.
(D) the explanation of acclimatization is specific to each plant and animal.
(E) as science develops, the connotation of terms may change.

3. According to the reading selection, acclimatization

(A) is similar to adaptation.
(B) is more important today than it was formerly.
(C) involves positive as well as negative adjustment.
(D) may be involved with a part of an organism but not with the whole organism.
(E) is more difficult to explain with the more complex present-day environment than it was formerly.

4. By inference from the reading selection, which one of the following would NOT require the process of acclimatization?

(A) an ocean fish placed in a lake
(B) a shallow diver making a deep dive
(C) an airplane pilot making a high-altitude flight
(D) a person going from daylight into a darkened room
(E) a businessman moving from Denver, Colorado, to New Orleans, Louisiana

5. According to the passage, a major distinction between acclimatization and adaptation is that acclimatization

(A) is more important than adaptation.
(B) is relatively slow and adaptation is relatively rapid.
(C) applies to adjustments while adaptation does not apply to adjustments.
(D) applies to terrestrial animals and adaptation to aquatic animals.
(E) is applicable to all animals and plants and adaptation only to higher animals and man.

6. The word "inured" in the first sentence of paragraph two most likely means

(A) exposed
(B) accustomed
(C) attracted
(D) associated
(E) in love with

7. The function of paragraph 2 in the passage as a whole is to

(A) Illuminate the human element of acclimatization
(B) Explain the role of scientists in acclimatization research
(C) Provide a definition corresponding to the examples sighted in paragraph 1.
(D) Detail the environmental adjustments animals make to their environment
(E) Show the links between important terms used elsewhere in the essay  

8. The author is most likely:

(A) A researcher in the field of adaptive mechanisms
(B) A student of biology
(C) A veterinarian looking to explain an issue of importance
(D) The editor of a scientific publication
(E) The founder of a new field of science

Play by Play

1.What is the passage type?

Subject: Science
Action:  Describe

2. What is each paragraph about?

P1: Acclimatization: more than just temperature
P2: Fast adjustment = adaptation vs. slow adjustment = acclimatization
P3: Characteristic of all living things = Capacity for change

3. What is the organization?

This is a contrast passage. We have: old definition (adjust to temperature) vs. new (adjust to many environmental factors). Two definitions are contrasted     

Temperature		temperature and more
Chosen definition is clarified		Slow vs. fast
General idea is summarized		We can change!

4. What is the big idea?
Animals and plants can adjust to their environments in various ways.

5. What is the author’s purpose?
The author wants to set the record straight by introducing a more nuanced definition of an important term, acclimatization.

Explanations

1. According to the reading selection, all animals and plants

(A) have an ability for acclimatization.
(B) can adjust to only one change in the environment at a time.
(C) are successful in adjusting themselves to changes in their environments.
(D) can adjust to natural changes in the environment but not to artificially induced changes.
(E) that have once acclimatized themselves to an environmental change can acclimatize themselves more rapidly to subsequent changes.

Type: Detail of the passage
(A) The beginning of the last paragraph states that "The fundamental fact about acclimatization is that all animals and plants have some capacity to adjust themselves to changes in their environment." Therefore we know that all animals and plants have the ability to for acclimatization. Choices B, D, and E are wrong because the passage just doesn’t say anything to support these statements. In fact, in the case of D, it actually contradicts what we learned in the passage: that it is possible to acclimate to artificial changes, such as pollution.  Choice C is incorrect because it’s going further than the passage takes us. The passage says all living things have the capacity for change, but doesn’t state that all animals and plants always succeed in adjusting to all changes in all environments. (400)

2. It can be inferred from the reading selection that

(A) every change in the environment requires acclimatization by living things.
(B) plants and animals are more alike than they are different.
(C) biologist and physiologists study essentially the same things.
(D) the explanation of acclimatization is specific to each plant and animal.
(E) as science develops, the connotation of terms may change.

Type: Inference
(E) The third sentence in paragraph 1 tells us that the term acclimatization originally meant an organism could adjust to temperature changes. Later, in the last sentence of paragraph 1, we learn that the term now refers to an organism's ability to adjust to changes in temperature, pressure and chemical environment. Choices A, B, C, and D are incorrect because one cannot infer any of these statements from the passage. Plants and animals are more alike than they are different?  Huh?  Carrots and cats have more similarities than differences?  Seems doubtful, but in any case, all that matters here is that the passage doesn't address this. (700)

3. According to the reading selection, acclimatization

(A) is similar to adaptation.
(B) is more important today than it was formerly.
(C) involves positive as well as negative adjustment.
(D) may be involved with a part of an organism but not with the whole organism.
(E) is more difficult to explain with the more complex present-day environment than it was formerly.

Type: Definition of a term or phrase
(A) Acclimatization and adaptation are both forms of adjustment. Accordingly, these two processes are similar. The difference between the two terms, however, is brought out in the second sentence in second paragraph. Don't let this distinction throw you off.  No, acclimatization and adaptation are not the same, but they are similar.  Though the passage never overtly states this fact, it can be inferred from the description of adaptation that it is similar to acclimatization. Choice D is incorrect because the passage does not say anything about the parts of the organism versus the whole. The first line of the second paragraph says that the whole organism, or a part of it, may change to suit a new environment, but not that either must take place. Choices B, C, and E are incorrect because the passage simply doesn't indicate that any of these choices are true. (500)

4. By inference from the reading selection, which one of the following would NOT require the process of acclimatization?

(A) an ocean fish placed in a lake
(B) a shallow diver making a deep dive
(C) an airplane pilot making a high-altitude flight
(D) a person going from daylight into a darkened room
(E) a businessman moving from Denver, Colorado, to New Orleans, Louisiana

Type: Inference
(D) A person going from daylight into a darkened room is an example of adaptation, not acclimatization. See the second through fourth sentences in paragraph two, where the author describes the definition of adaptation. Choices A, B, C, and E all require the process of acclimatization, so they are incorrect. An ocean fish placed in a lake (A) is a chemical change. Choices B, C, and E are all pressure changes. Acclimatization, according to the new definition in the passage, deals with both chemical and pressure changes. (600)

5. According to the passage, a major distinction between acclimatization and adaptation is that acclimatization

(A) is more important than adaptation.
(B) is relatively slow and adaptation is relatively rapid.
(C) applies to adjustments while adaptation does not apply to adjustments.
(D) applies to terrestrial animals and adaptation to aquatic animals.
(E) is applicable to all animals and plants and adaptation only to higher animals and man.

Type: Detail of the passage
(B). See the third and fourth sentences of paragraph two: "The term should not be taken to include relatively rapid adjustments such as those that our sense organs are constantly making. This type of adjustment is commonly referred to by physiologists as adaptation." Choices A, D, and E are incorrect because the passage does not contain any evidence to back up these claims. These are all just made-up distinctions that are never mentioned in the passage, and, remember, the passage is all we have to base our answers upon. Choice C is partially correct in that acclimatization does apply to adjustments, but the choice is incorrect because adaptation also applies to adjustments.

6. The word "inured" in the first sentence of paragraph two most likely means

(A) exposed
(B) accustomed
(C) attracted
(D) associated
(E) in love with

Type: Definition of a term or phrase
(B) "Inured" most nearly means "accustomed". The sentence is describing an organism surviving in an environment it normally would not be able to cope with. This question is very detailed and further knowledge of the passage outside the contextual sentence provides you with little help. If you are having trouble with this kind of question read each choice into the sentence and chose the one that best gets at the overall point being made. Most of the choices don't make sense with the concept of the organism becoming inured to "an environment which is normally unsuitable to it or lethal for it. Would an organism survive in a normally lethal environment if it was simply "exposed" (A) or "attracted" (C) to it, for example? (400)

7. The function of paragraph 2 in the passage as a whole is to

(A) Illuminate the human element of acclimatization
(B) Explain the role of scientists in acclimatization research
(C) Provide a definition corresponding to the examples sighted in paragraph 1.
(D) Detail the environmental adjustments animals make to their environment
(E) Show the links between important terms used elsewhere in the essay  

Type: Function of a part of the passage (Advanced)
(C) The purpose of the second paragraph is to explain the definition of acclimatization. The end of paragraph 1 provides examples of acclimatization, and the first line of paragraph 2 provides the direct definition of the term. The rest of the paragraph provides a secondary definition of adaptation: to support the definition of acclimatization by showing what it is NOT. (A) and (B) contain a detail of the paragraph but do not relate to its overall function. (D) is incorrect because the paragraph does not show environmental adjustments for animals in detail, only humans. (E) is incorrect because the paragraph contains the term adaptation which is not used elsewhere in the essay. (700)

8. The author is most likely:

(A) A researcher in the field of adaptive mechanisms
(B) A student of biology
(C) A veterinarian looking to explain an issue of importance
(D) The editor of a scientific publication
(E) The founder of a new field of science

Type: Identity of the author (Advanced)
(A) The author describes acclimatization in detail and his tone is one of experience. The author is familiar with acclimatization at a very high level. He or she is unlikely to be a student (B) since the passage is long, detailed and historical. The author is unlikely to be a veterinarian (C), as the issue of acclimatization applies to humans, as well as to animals. (D) and (E) are tricky, but they are incorrect. (D) is incorrect because there is nothing in the passage to indicate that the author is an editor specifically (as opposed to a contributor) to a scientific publication. (E) is also incorrect because, although the author attempts to clarify and explain the nuances of acclimatization, this does not constitute the creation of a new field of science. (700)

Section 6: Passage 5 - Mermen Sightings

The mid-thirteenth-century King's Mirror contains extraordinarily accurate descriptions of sea mammals and other natural phenomena. The section dealing with the North Atlantic describes only three phenomena that assume an aspect of the marvelous: the hafgerdingar (sea fences) and the Norse merman, both sighted in the Greenland Sea, and the hafgufa, sighted in Icelandic seas. Scientists have long assumed that the Norse mermen were nothing more than manatees or dugongs; however, that theory ought surely to be reconsidered in light of new research findings indicating that hafgerdingar are a visual effect created by anomalous atmospheric refraction of light rays.

Light is refracted downward during a temperature inversion, a condition in which atmospheric temperature increases with elevation. During an inversion, irregularities in the atmospheric temperature profile, especially thermoclines (layers where the temperature gradient is steeper than in adjacent layers), create irregularities in light refraction. The resulting optical distortion may be so severe as to make ordinary objects unrecognizable, even at short distances. One excellent source for mermen images, for instance, may have been whales projecting their heads vertically out of the water. (Such activity, called "spy-hopping" is common among cetaceans). Our computer simulations suggest that, with changes in the temperature profile, a whale's head can appear slender and vertically elongated to a degree three times its actual height above water. Since the horizontal dimension remains unchanged, the distorted image possesses a large height-to width ratio, a form associated with humans. The refractive distortion diminishes if the image can be viewed from above the thermocline, but to sail thirteenth-century vessels, Norse mariners worked from the deck, only a few meters above the sea. Subsequent use of higher-decked ships and of elevated lockouts would explain the infrequent sightings of mermen by Norse mariners in later centuries.

Apparently, the thermoclines that generate mermen images are most likely to be created when a warm air mass moves slowly over significantly cooler surface air, as in the last stages of a warm front, when the warm-cold interface has descended almost to the surface. (Some experimental verification of this hypothesis has already been provided by Wegener, who correlated mirages in the North Atlantic with the arrival of warm fronts.) The typical conditions just before a major storm in the Greenland Sea, dead calm followed by a sudden rise in temperature, are ideally suited to the development of thermoclines. The amount of optical distortion depends directly on the temperature difference between the two air masses, which in turn determines the strength of the front and the severity of subsequent storms. The King's Mirror quite correctly associated the appearance of Norse mermen with the advent of storms on the open sea. However, Norse mariners thought that the mermen brought on the storms. In fact, the opposite was true.

1. Which of the following statements best expresses the central idea of the passage?

(A) Early Norse mariners were incorrect in attributing to mermen the power to bring on storms at sea.
(B) A Norse merman is actually a distorted visual image created by anomalous atmospheric refraction.
(C) The Norse merman is unlikely to be merely a manatee or a dugong.
(D) The thermoclines that generate mermen images are more common in the North Atlantic than elsewhere in the world.
(E) A whale projecting its head vertically out of the water is an excellent source for mermen images.

2. The author is impressed by the King's Mirror because of its

(A)  Universality
(B)  Comprehensiveness
(C) Ingenuity
(D) Faithfulness to reality
(E) Sound reasoning

3. According to the passage, the thermoclines that generate mermen images are most likely to be present when two air masses in close proximity differ significantly in

(A)  Elevation
(B)  Density
(C) Temperature
(D) Rate of movement
(E) Moisture content

4. According to the passage, an object sighted at sea will appear most distorted by a thermocline when the

(A) Distance from the object to the observer is short.
(B) Vertical dimension of the object is large.
(C) Surface of the water near the observer is smooth.
(D) Elevation of the observer above the water level is low.
(E) Frontal system that created the thermocline is strong.

5. According to the author, Norse mariners made which of the following errors?

(A) They worked their ships only from the deck.
(B) They converted to higher-decked ships in later centuries.
(C) They did not record their sightings of mermen in later centuries.
(D) They mistook one sea mammal for another.
(E) They mistook an effect of storm conditions for a cause of storms.

6. Which of the following phrases could best be substituted for the word "reconsidered" in the last sentence of the first paragraph, without changing the meaning of the passage as a whole?

(A)  Evaluated objectively
(B)  Verified experimentally
(C)  Questioned seriously
(D)  Compared with other theories
(E)  Reasserted more emphatically

7. According to the passage, the likelihood of optical distortion is increased in the presence of which of the following atmospheric conditions?
I. A temperature inversion
II. A warm front
III. Dead calm followed by a sudden rise in temperature

(A)  I only
(B) II only
(C) I and III only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III

8. Which of the following would most strengthen the author's assertions concerning the cause of mermen images?

(A) Accurate measurement of the average temperature gradient in a thermocline.
(B) Empirical verification of computer simulations made by the author.
(C) Explanation by historians of the reasons behind the design changes made in Norse ships after the thirteenth century.
(D) Discovery of records showing frequent sightings of mermen by Norse mariners after the thirteenth century.
(E) Discovery of errors in the correlations developed by Wegener.

9. The passage implies that the hafgerdingar are most likely to be seen as a result of which of the following?

(A) Irregularities in the atmospheric temperature profile.
(B) Movement of a cool air mass over significantly warmer surface air.
(C) Upward refraction of light rays through the atmosphere.
(D) A period of several consecutive warm days on the Greenland Sea.
(E) A change in atmospheric temperature profile after a storm at sea.

Play by Play

Section 6: Passage 6 - Ancient Greece

On the grassy slope below me was the god's precinct, a sacred spot, entered on pain of death. Indeed, worshipers of old believed that, once there, neither man nor beast could cast a shadow. In times past they had processed up this mountain in the night to reenact a ritual human sacrifice to their god—or so ancient sources tell us. At the festive meal, a person who chanced to eat human flesh mixed with the flesh of sacrificed animals would transform into a werewolf. In fact, Lykaion signifies wolf.

These enigmatic rites were celebrated not by an uncivilized people in a forgotten land but rather in the heart of classical Greece during its so-called Golden Age. The practitioners of these rites were respected Greek citizens, not fringe cultists, who worshiped Zeus, the king of the Gods. In a way, these rites were no more bizarre than countless mainstream festivals of the time: During the Athenian Thesmophoria, women retrieved the decayed bodies of piglets from pits into which they had tossed the dead animals months earlier, and in the rites of the goddess Artemis that took place at Brauron little girls impersonated bears.

Like all periods of history, the Classical Age of Greece, which lasted from about 500 B.C. until the death of Alexander the Great in 323 B.C., was complex and contradictory, a mix of superstition and rationality that blended revolutionary concepts and age-old traditions. Classical Greece is rightly regarded as a high-water mark of civilization. Yet the living, breathing people who created this culture did not exist merely to turn out masterpiece after masterpiece for the later Western world to study, though it may seem that way to students of the humanities reluctant to embrace the less enchanting aspects of the culture. Because so much of Western culture has its roots in classical Greece, it is easy to overlook the living context from which this heritage arose. We focus on what we know, ignoring the features that strike us as bizarre or even repugnant.

The great masterpieces of ancient Greece are our heritage, but it is doubtful that any modern Western person can fully comprehend their background. How can we, in the 20th century, envision the magic spells of the sorceress Medea? Or the magic behind the routine spilling of animal blood as sacrifice? Or the use of curse objects to summon ghosts from the underworld to harm one's enemies? Yet these practices and beliefs, as much as the spirit of democracy and the value of aesthetic beauty, formed the nerves and sinews of ancient Greek culture. To professional classicists this is old news, but to the layman these unfamiliar aspects of Classical Greece are shocking. Unfamiliar as well, to the layman, are the centuries of earlier Greek life that laid the foundation for the famous “Golden Age” we study in school. For these reasons, I determined that when I traveled to Greece, I would visit all these different eras and rituals. I would pay tribute to the Parthenon—but also examine the “voodoo dolls” in the Kerameikos Museum in Athens.

On the island of Euboea, north of Athens, an unusual site demonstrates that the Golden Age did not spring into existence fully formed but instead was centuries in the making. On a nondescript hillock overlooking the sea near the town of Lefkandi, a tenth-century B.C. grave was revealed when ground was dug up for a house. The work unearthed the remains of an elaborate cremation and burial, uncannily similar to the burials of heroes described in Homer's Iliad. In addition to the deceased's bones, carefully wrapped in a piece of fabric and placed in an heirloom bronze urn, excavators found evidence of a building nearly 160 feet in length that had once covered the burial site.

Dating from the era traditionally known as Greece's Dark Age—some three and a half centuries that began with the collapse of the Mycenaean world—the Lefkandi finds were a reminder that however murky or “dark” this historical period may be to us, to the people of the time it was life. The Dark Age was an age of many things: oral bards continued the tradition of transmitting the Homeric masterpieces, the Iliad and Odyssey; distinctive pottery with geometric patterns was made throughout Greece; and as the Lefkandi site indicated, people built impressive structures to bury their dead in a manner befitting heroes. Like the carefully preserved bronze urn, two centuries older than the bones it contained, ideas—and culture—were passed on from generation to generation of Greek people.

1. Which of the following is/are not representative of the Dark Age?

(A) The creation of the Iliad
(B)  ideas and culture
(C) Geometrically patterned pottery
(D) Large burial sites
(E) Urn burial

2. Classical Greece is one basis of Western culture and heritage. This statement

(A)  Follows directly from the passage
(B)  Is partially true.
(C)  Cannot be derived from the passage.
(D)  Is an unstated assumption made in the passage.
(E)  May be inferred from the passage.

3. “Students of the humanities” are called reluctant by the author because

(A) Studying Ancient Greece is not pleasant.
(B) Classical Greece has so many facets to study.
(C) History is normally approached with reluctance.
(D) The Greeks did not always turn out masterpieces.
(E) None of the above.

4. Which of the following may be inferred from the passage?

(A) Mount Lykaion's history embodies that past of Greece, which, though little known, holds its audience enthralled.
(B) Mount Lykaion represents historical Greece in an enigmatic, unfriendly and rare manner.
(C) Mount Lykaion's story is the story of a Greece that is at the same time repulsive and interesting.
(D) The history of Mount Lykaion tells the intimidating past of a Greece that is unknown.
(E) Mount Lykaion represents an aspect of ancient Greek civilization that is little known and definitely not celebrated.

5. The “nerves and sinews” of ancient Greek culture would omit which of the following?

(A)  Bizarre practices
(B)  The spirit of democracy
(C)  The canons of beauty
(D)  A belief in ghosts and sacrifices
(E)  Revolutionary architecture

6. The Lefkandi findings indicate that

(A) Life was as complex and difficult during the Dark Age as any other period in history.
(B) Life went on just as it had for centuries in Greece, regardless of how we now classify that time period.
(C) However “dark” this period may seem to later civilizations it was an honorable age.
(D) The Iliad and the Odyssey were transferred by oral bards.
(E) Large burial sites only existed during the Dark Age

7. The town of Lefkandi is situated

(A)  Near mount Lykaion.
(B)  Near the Aegean Sea.
(C)  In the outskirts of Athens.
(D)  On the island of Euboea.
(E)  Near to the Parthenon.

8. The author's attitude towards the Dark Age of Ancient Greece is one of

(A) Surprise
(B) Amusement
(C) Reverence
(D) Acceptance
(E) Opposition

PLAY BY PLAY

PARAGRAPH 1 On the grassy slope below me was the god's precinct, a sacred spot, entered on pain of death. Indeed, worshipers of old believed that, once there, neither man nor beast could cast a shadow. In times past they had processed up this mountain in the night to reenact a ritual human sacrifice to their god--or so ancient sources tell us. At the festive meal, a person who chanced to eat human flesh mixed with the flesh of sacrificed animals would transform into a werewolf. In fact, Lykaion signifies wolf.

Lykaion is a place where ancient rituals were performed. It was considered a sacred place and a dangerous one too. The author is purposely not telling us whom he or she is talking about.

PARAGRAPH 2 (1) These enigmatic rites were celebrated not by an uncivilized people in a forgotten land but rather in the heart of classical Greece during its so-called Golden Age. The practitioners of these rites were respected Greek citizens, not fringe cultists, who worshiped Zeus, the king of the Gods. (2) In a way, these rites were no more bizarre than countless mainstream festivals of the time: During the Athenian Thesmophoria, women retrieved the decayed bodies of piglets from pits into which they had tossed the dead animals months earlier, and in the rites of the goddess Artemis that took placed at Brauron little girls impersonated bears.

(1) Surprise! We're talking about Ancient Greece. Not what you were expecting? (2) The author gives examples of other strange rituals to prove that his first example is not alone in its strangeness. The author wants you to know that there is a lot about Ancient Greece that will surprise you. Maybe you have the Greeks all wrong.

PARAGRAPH 3 (1) Like all periods of history, the Classical Age of Greece, which lasted from about 500 B.C. until the death of Alexander the Great in 323 B.C., was complex and contradictory, a mix of superstition and rationality that blended revolutionary concepts and age-old traditions. (2) Classical Greece is rightly regarded as a high-water mark of civilization. Yet the living, breathing people who created this culture did not exist merely to turn out masterpiece after masterpiece for the later Western world to study, though it may seem that way to students of the humanities reluctant to embrace the less enchanting aspects of the culture. Because so much of Western culture has its roots in classical Greece, it is easy to overlook the living context from which this heritage arose. We focus on what we know, ignoring the features that strike us as bizarre or even repugnant.

(1) The author is painting a complicated picture of Ancient Greece. He or she is trying to break your preconceived notions about this ancient culture. (2) The author sees Ancient Greek culture in its entirety, and showing how he is different from students of the humanities in seeing it as such.

PARAGRAPH 4 (1) The great masterpieces of ancient Greece are our heritage, but it is doubtful that any modern Western person can fully comprehend their background. How can we, in the 20th century, envision the magic spells of the sorceress Medea? Or the magic behind the routine spilling of animal blood as sacrifice? Or the use of curse objects to summon ghosts from the underworld to harm one's enemies? Yet these practices and beliefs, as much as the spirit of democracy and the value of aesthetic beauty, formed the nerves and sinews of ancient Greek culture. To professional classicists this is old news, but to the layman these unfamiliar aspects of Classical Greece are shocking. (2) Unfamiliar as well, to the layman, are the centuries of earlier Greek life that laid the foundation for the famous “Golden Age” we study in school. For these reasons, I determined that when I traveled to Greece, I would visit all these different eras and rituals. I would pay tribute to the Parthenon--but also examine the “voodoo dolls” in the Kerameikos Museum in Athens.

(1) The author tells us that "real" Ancient Greece is difficult for "the layman" (regular person) to accept. All this magic, ritual, sorcery does not fit well with the common perception of Ancient Greece, but it is just as fundamental to the culture as democracy and art are (both are things that "the layman" recognizes about the culture). (2) The author clearly shows his preference for a balanced study of Ancient Greece. His trip plan is evidence that he cares about Greece both for its memorable achievements (ex: Parthenon) and its weird customs (ex: voodoo dolls).

PARAGRAPH 5 (1) On the island of Euboea, north of Athens, an unusual site demonstrates that the Golden Age did not spring into existence fully formed but instead was centuries in the making. (2) On a nondescript hillock overlooking the sea near the town of Lefkandi, a tenth-century B.C. grave was revealed when ground was dug up for a house. The work unearthed the remains of an elaborate cremation and burial, uncannily similar to the burials of heroes described in Homer's Iliad. In addition to the deceased's bones, carefully wrapped in a piece of fabric and placed in an heirloom bronze urn, excavators found evidence of a building nearly 160 feet in length that had once covered the burial site.

(1) Our author wants to prove that the Ancient Greece we learn about in school is only one age in the culture's history. This "Golden Age" is the result of an earlier time that we don't often study. (2) Since the description of the Lefkandi site comes directly after, and in the same paragraph as, the description of early Greek history, we can assume the author is going to use this example to discuss this time period further.

PARAGRAPH 6 (1) Dating from the era traditionally known as Greece's Dark Age--some three and a half centuries that began with the collapse of the Mycenaean world--the Lefkandi finds were a reminder that however murky or “dark” this historical period may be to us, to the people of the time it was life. (2) The Dark Age was an age of many things: oral bards continued the tradition of transmitting the Homeric masterpieces, the Iliad and Odyssey; distinctive pottery with geometric patterns was made throughout Greece; and as the Lefkandi site indicated, people built impressive structures to bury their dead in a manner befitting heroes. (3) Like the carefully preserved bronze urn, two centuries older than the bones it contained, ideas--and culture--were passed on from generation to generation of Greek people.

(1) Here is the author's explanation of the site's meaning. It is a burial site and shows that people treated the dead with respect. Life and death existed at that time, just like at any other time in history. (2) Our author thinks the Dark Age is important. It had its own traditions and kept earlier traditions alive. (3) The urn came before the burial, and because it is an element of the past, existing in a more recent time, it represents the continuity of Ancient Greek culture. The author shows that he believes Ancient Greek culture was an ever-progressing entity, flowing from one period into the next.

1. What is the passage type?

Subject: History
Action:  Persuade

2. What is each paragraph about?

P1: Description of an Ancient Greek ritual
P2: Ancient Greek culture is a lot more bizarre than you probably think.
P3: Ancient Greece is very complicated, and most people don't see that.
P4: The more bizarre elements of Ancient Greek culture should not be overlooked.
P5: We only learn about "Golden Age" of Ancient Greece in school.
P6: Pay attention to all of Ancient Greek history: the "Dark Age" as well as the "Golden Age"

3. What is the organization?

The passage is persuasive and uses archaeological evidence as examples to bring its points alive. Worship - Thesmophoria, Artemis

Sacrifice - Lykaion, Animal

Magic Spells- Medea, Voodoo Dolls

The passage also sets up a variety of key contrasts:

Bizarre rituals vs. Democracy and Art

Golden Age vs. Entirety of Ancient Greek history

Layman's concept vs. True Greece


4. What is the big idea?

It is important to see Ancient Greece for everything it was.


5. What is the author’s purpose?
To spread awareness of the less well-known aspects of Ancient Greek culture.

Explanatory Answers

1. Which of the following is/are not representative of the Dark Age?

(A) The creation of the Iliad
(B)  ideas and culture
(C) Geometrically patterned pottery
(D) Large burial sites
(E) Urn burial

Type: Detail of the passage
(A) The answer is evident from the last paragraph: "… oral bards continued the tradition of transmitting the Homeric masterpieces, the Iliad and the Odyssey; distinctive pottery with geometric patterns was made throughout Greece; and as the Lefkandi site indicated, people built impressive structures to bury their dead in a manner befitting heroes." The author says the Homeric masterpiece continued to be transmitted during this period, implying that it was created during an earlier period, other than the dark age. Also, the other four options are explicitly mentioned as being characteristic of this period, making (A) the only possibility. (300)

2. Classical Greece is one basis of Western culture and heritage. This statement

(A)  Follows directly from the passage
(B)  Is partially true.
(C)  Cannot be derived from the passage.
(D)  Is an unstated assumption made in the passage.
(E)  May be inferred from the passage.

Type: Inference
(A) In the third paragraph, the author writes, "Because so much of Western culture has its roots in classical Greece, it is easy to overlook the living context from which this heritage arose. We focus on what we know and edit away the features that strike us as bizarre or even repugnant." The author is taking for granted that Western culture is derived from classical Greece. Therefore, (A) is the correct answer choice. (B), (C), (D) and (E) are not supported in the passage. Although (E) may seem correct, there is no inference necessary to make the statement, since it is so directly stated in the passage. (700)

3. “Students of the humanities” are called reluctant by the author because

(A) Studying Ancient Greece is not pleasant.
(B) Classical Greece has so many facets to study.
(C) History is normally approached with reluctance.
(D) The Greeks did not always turn out masterpieces.
(E) None of the above.

Type: Detail of the passage
(E) The students are called "reluctant" because they are unwilling to acknowledge that there was a lot of unpleasantness in the daily life of Classical Greece. This follows from the third paragraph, "Yet the living, breathing people who created this culture did not exist merely to turn out masterpiece after masterpiece for the later Western world to study, though it may seem that way to students of the humanities reluctant to embrace the less enchanting aspects of the culture." There is no mention of the subject of Ancient Greece being unpleasant, only that aspects of Classical Greek life are difficult to acknowledge because they are unpleasant. This is a subtle difference between the passage and the answer choice, making (A) incorrect. The passage also never mentions that Classical Greece has too many facets to study, that history is normally approached with reluctance, or that the Greeks do not always turn out masterpieces (with respect to students). Hence (A), (B), (C), (D) are incorrect. This question requires you to look to the passage for information about student attitude. You must understand their attitude and be able to recognize that none of the answer choices correctly portray it. When you eliminate the options you know to be incorrect and there is only one answer left, it must be correct. (700)

4. Which of the following may be inferred from the passage?

(A) Mount Lykaion's history embodies that past of Greece, which, though little known, holds its audience enthralled.
(B) Mount Lykaion represents historical Greece in an enigmatic, unfriendly and rare manner.
(C) Mount Lykaion's story is the story of a Greece that is at the same time repulsive and interesting.
(D) The history of Mount Lykaion tells the intimidating past of a Greece that is unknown.
(E) Mount Lykaion represents an aspect of ancient Greek civilization that is little known and definitely not celebrated.

Type: Inference
(E) Mount Lykaion represents a part of ancient Greek civilization that is considered bizarre. The author suggests that it has been overlooked, rather than celebrated, and he's determined not to do that. There is no mention in the passage that Mount Lykaion holds its audience enthralled, ruling out (A). In addition, the passage does not state anywhere that Mount Lykaion represents historical Greece in an enigmatic, unfriendly and rare manner, only that it shows a side of Ancient Greece that is not often honored. Again, there is no mention that Mount Lykaion is at the same time repulsive and interesting. (D) misses the point of the passage: part of ancient Greek life is regarded as strange, but it is not "intimidating" and is somewhat known, at least among historians, as in paragraph four: "To professional classicists this is old news." Thus, (A), (B), (C), (D) are incorrect. Only, (E) remains consistent with the passage's general focus on the less well-known aspects of ancient Greek life. (700)

5. The “nerves and sinews” of ancient Greek culture would omit which of the following?

(A)  Bizarre practices
(B)  The spirit of democracy
(C)  The canons of beauty
(D)  A belief in ghosts and sacrifices
(E)  Revolutionary architecture

Type: Definition of a term or phrase
(E) Paragraph four asks, "How can we in the 20th century envision the magic spells of the sorceress Medea? Or the magic behind the routine spilling of animal blood as sacrifice? Or the use of curse objects to summon ghosts from the underworld to harm one's enemies? Yet these practices and beliefs, as much as the spirit of democracy and the value of aesthetic beauty, formed the nerves and sinews of ancient Greek culture..." The “nerves and sinews” of ancient Greek culture, then, include both the philosophical and artistic principles of ancient Greek culture and the rituals and practices of ordinary life. To get this question correct, you must locate all the answer choices in the passage and eliminate each one that you find. Options (A), (B), (C) and (D) are included but (E) is not. No mention is made in the passage of architecture. Hence (E) is the right choice. (300)

6. The Lefkandi findings indicate that

(A) Life was as complex and difficult during the Dark Age as any other period in history.
(B) Life went on just as it had for centuries in Greece, regardless of how we now classify that time period.
(C) However “dark” this period may seem to later civilizations, it was an honorable age.
(D) The Iliad and the Odyssey were transferred by oral bards.
(E) Large burial sites only existed during the Dark Age

Type: Inference
(B) In the last paragraph, the author states that the Lefkandi findings were a reminder that however murky or “dark” this historical period may be to us, life went on. Thus (B) is correct. There is no mention of the complexity of life at the time, eliminating (A), nor that the Dark Age is now considered "honorable," eliminating (C). While the transmission of the Iliad is mentioned, it is not related to the Lefkandi findings, which eliminates (D). Though it is a large burial site, the Lefkandi findings do not, just by their appearance in this passage, prove that large burial sites only existed during the Dark Age. Therefore, options (A), (B), (C) and (D) are incorrect. (E) is the correct choice. (500)

7. The town of Lefkandi is situated

(A)  Near mount Lykaion.
(B)  Near the Aegean Sea.
(C)  In the outskirts of Athens.
(D)  On the island of Euboea.
(E)  Near to the Parthenon.

Type: Detail of the passage
(D) The fifth paragraph contains these references: “ On the island of Euboea, north of Athens…On a nondescript hillock overlooking the sea near the town of Lefkandi …” There is no mention of the town 's proximity to Mount Lykaion, the Aegean Sea or Parthenon. Thus, (A), (B) and (E) are incorrect. Lefkandi is in the north of Athens but may or may not be in its outskirts; therefore, there is insufficient evidence for (C). Hence, (D) is the right choice. (200)

8. The author's attitude towards the Dark Age of Ancient Greece is one of

(A) Surprise
(B) Amusement
(C) Reverence
(D) Acceptance
(E) Opposition

Type: Tone
(C) The author's use of words like "enigmatic" and "distinctive" to describe the Dark Age of Ancient Greece. He or she tells us that the sorcery and rituals of the Dark Age gave rise to the culture of Golden Age, Greece's most well known Ancient period. The author's descriptions are filled with awe and respect. (300)

Section 6: Passage 7 - European Retail Market

When consumers finish their Christmas buying, another shopping season will be just beginning: retailers will be bought and sold by other retailers. Britain, in particular, may face a wave of retailer acquisitions.

Wal-Mart especially terrifies its European counterparts, because its high-tech supply system and mass-buying power enable it to command the lowest prices from suppliers. Since Wal-Mart bought Britain's third-largest supermarket chain, Asda, for just under $11 billion in cash last June, the share prices of nervous British rivals have started to plummet.

But Asda's retiring chairman, Archie Norman, thinks the stocks have fallen too far. In early November he and three friends invested $8 million in a shell company called Knutsford. Their $8 million was nominally worth $200 million the next day, and when Norman said Knutsford intended to buy “undervalued retail operations”, private investors fought to purchase the company's few remaining available shares.

Little Knutsford presumably cannot gobble up Britain's two struggling retail giants, but a bigger company may do so. One of these troubled retailers is Marks & Spencer, a national icon. In 1996, Britons bought 40% of their lingerie, 25% of their men's suits, and 6% of their food in M & S's 700 shops.

Founded in 1884, when Polish immigrant Michael Marks opened a penny bazaar in a market stall in Leeds, the company grew rapidly a generation later under the leadership of Michael's son, Simon (later Lord) Marks. Simon Marks would descend on his stores unannounced, throw anything he considered substandard to the ground, and yell, “Are you trying to ruin my business?” In 1964 he visited a women's department that stocked shorter miniskirts than he had approved and died of a heart attack.

For many years, M & S was held up as an example of enlightened business practices. It trained its staff and suppliers exhaustively, promoted from within its own ranks, and bought from British suppliers on long-term contracts. Its strategy of buying British turned out to be disastrous. While its competitors were ordering from cheaper, faster overseas suppliers, M & S was placing orders in huge quantities with expensive British firms who took up to 12 months to deliver--by that time, fashions had changed and the clothes were out-of-date. M & S eventually became known for being rather dowdy. At the same time, the M & S culture grew inbred and slow to adapt to change. As a result of these problems, the company's stock price has sunk 50% since 1997.

The second major British retailer in crisis is J. Sainsbury & Sons', which, until 1996, was Britain's largest grocer. Its share price also has dropped by nearly half in the past two years. Sainsbury family members still own 40% of the company; the younger ones may be willing to sell for a decent price. Founded in 1869, J. Sainsbury experienced its fastest growth a century later when the founder's great grandson, John, took over. John Sainsbury was wont to land his helicopter unannounced on the flat roofs of his stores, but he was also courteous to all his employees, provided they lived up to his rigid rules. Of these rules, the most important was to maintain a sales density of at least $33 per week for every square foot in the store. In 1912, John Sainsbury (who was made a lord by Margaret Thatcher) retired in favor of his younger cousin David (who has been made a lord and government minister by Tony Blair). Though everyone agrees that David is a nice fellow, he and his successors saw Sainsbury slip behind an upstart, Tesco, which introduced even tougher performance rules and more innovative service. Sainsbury's, like M & S and Britain's fourth-largest supermarket chain, Safeway, is a likely candidate for takeover in the near future. The fifth largest, Somerfield, is trying to sell its 140 best stores, but will probably fail to sell its 350 worst ones.

Foreign takeovers seem less likely to succeed in France, where supermarkets are amalgamating into national icons, protected by local authorities. Optimists say this atmosphere is changing, but I would hesitate to invest early in any foreign intruder who seeks to flood France with the cheapest Asian textiles and most efficiently produced American hormone-treated beef.

That is why Wal-Mart has made its first European invasions during the past two years into price-conscious Germany. Wal-Mart seems confident that the stores it has bought can beat the locals in service (which in Germany is atrocious) while cutting prices even further. If Wal-Mart succeeds in Germany, it should succeed in equally free-trading Britain, although primarily in non-food products. The food market in Britain is challenging to enter for several reasons: there are planning restrictions against large out-of-town warehouses, gas taxes are high, and Tesco is already thriving as an efficient grocer in an overcrowded market. One way or another, though, Europe's main streets are changing fast.

1. Which of the following can be concluded from the passage?

(A) European retailers have ample reason to dread the American retail company Wal-Mart.
(B) More than 6% of Britons buy their food from J. Sainsbury & Sons.
(C) Wal-Mart is determined to become a major retailer in Europe.
(D) John Sainsbury and Simon Marks shared a similar disposition.
(E) None of the above.

2. As compared to France, Germany is

(A) More open to takeovers by international companies.
(B) Less self-conscious about nationalism, protection from the state government is rare.
(C) More interested in cheaper goods.
(D) Less concerned with customer satisfaction and quality service.
(E) None of the above.

3. The company in which Archie Norman and friends invested $8 million is

(A) Aiming at opening retail outlets in Britain.
(B) Likely to be involved in the manufacture or sale of clothes.
(C) A small retail operation that is aiming to expand by buyouts.
(D) Not offering any product or service.
(E) None of the above.

4. Knutsford was worth $200 million the very next day because

(A) Archie Norman's association with Asda was enough to lure private investors.
(B) Investors believed that some retail operations were undervalued.
(C) Archie Norman had obtained $11 billion in cash from the sale of Asda.
(D) Retail operations were perceived as a very good investment.
(E) Knutsford was likely to buy out the bigger retail outlets in Britain.

5. Given what the passage says about the success of Wal-Mart, which of the following reforms, if carried out, would be most likely to insure the continued success of M & S?

(A) A complete overhaul of the supplier base to insure that it makes volume purchases at globally competitive rates.
(B) A marketing campaign to popularize its brand.
(C) Recruiting senior managers from outside and purchasing from global sellers without any purchase guarantee.
(D) Training staff for changes in the business environment
(E) Looking towards international rather than British trends and purchase accordingly.

6. With which of the following would Walmart have difficulty competing?

(A) Sainsbury
(B) Tesco
(C) Safeway
(D) Somerfield
(E) M & S

7. A hostile takeover would be unnecessary in the case of:

(A)  M & S
(B)  Sainsbury
(C)  Safeway
(D)  Tesco
(E)  Somerfield

8. Which of the following is not mentioned as an obstacle to success in entering the British retail food market?

(A) Strict law on food preservation
(B) The need for large out-of-town warehouses
(C) The presence of a well-entrenched retail outlet
(D) An overcrowded grocery market.
(E) High taxes associated with transportation

9. One may infer that France is less susceptible to foreign takeovers mainly because

(A) It does not believe in free trade.
(B)  It is not very price conscious.
(C)  It is a closed economy.
(D)  It is biased against American products.
(E)  It is very nationalistic.

PLAY BY PLAY

This essay is long, ponderous and detail ridden. Something like this needs to be mapped well so you can quickly find detail questions.

1. What is the passage type?

Subject: Economics / Current Events
Action:  Describe

2. What is each paragraph about?

P1: Retailers are buying each other out
P2: Wal-Mart bought Asda and sent British supermarket stock down
P3: However, Norman, of Knutsford thinks the retail market is undervalued.
P4: M & S may be bought out.
P5: M & S's founder was eccentric in character and management.
P6: M & S couldn't stay up-to-date in its business practices and is losing profits as a result.
P7: Tesco is beating out Sainsbury. Sainsbury and Safeway will be taken over soon. Somerfield will not be able to sell its stores.
P8: France is nationalistic and will not sell out.
P9: Wal-Mart entered Europe through Germany, a price-conscious nation. If Wal-Mart is successful there, it will be in Britain as well, but not in food products.

3. What is the organization?

The passage is combines fact and opinion. Most of the passage is a history of British business competition. This is a good background because it explains why there may be room for Wal-Mart or other buy-outs there.
Fact: France is nationalistic.
Opinion: France will not sell stores.

Fact: Germany is price-conscious.
Opinion: Wal-Mart will succeed there.

The passage also sets up some contrasts:

Germany vs. France

Britain vs. France

Eccentric business practices vs. Modern, innovative ones

Mom and Pop store vs. Large conglomerate

4. What is the big idea?

The retail situation in Europe is making room for takeovers and buy-outs by big companies. However, France may not succumb to this trend.

5. What is the author’s purpose?

To explain the retail situation in Europe and show that the effect on each country is not equal. However, overall changes are obvious.


Explanatory Answers

1. Which of the following can be concluded from the passage?

(A) European retailers have ample reason to dread the American retail company Wal-Mart.
(B) More than 6% of Britons buy their food from J. Sainsbury & Sons.
(C) Wal-Mart is determined to become a major retailer in Europe.
(D) John Sainsbury and Simon Marks shared a similar disposition.
(E) None of the above.

Type: Main Idea
(C) The passage alludes to the fear European retailers have of a threat from Wal-Mart, but this threat is not substantiated; hence there is not enough information to definitively infer (A). (B) is also wrong, because the passage says that more than 6% of Brits go grocery shopping at M&S, not J. Sainsbury & Sons. (D) is too vague to be supported by the passage. Finally, (C) is correct. We know that Wal-Mart is making a large effort to become a European retailer from lines like "Wal-Mart seems confident that the stores it has bought can beat the locals in service...". (300)

2. As compared to France, Germany is

(A) More open to takeovers by international companies.
(B) Less self-conscious about nationalism, protection from the state government is rare.
(C) More interested in cheaper goods.
(D) Less concerned with customer satisfaction and quality service.
(E) None of the above.

Type: Detail of the passage
(C) In the sixth paragraph the author says, "Foreign takeovers seem less likely to succeed in France, where supermarkets are amalgamating into national champions, protected by local authorities", but he or she does not say that Germany is more open to takeovers by international companies or that it is less self-conscious about nationalism and the protection from the state government is rare. So option (A) and (B) are wrong. Secondly, the author says, "Wal-Mart seems confident that the stores it has bought can beat the locals in service (which in Germany is atrocious)." Germany must be concerned with service if Wal-Mart is confident it can bring good service and, as a result, beat local stores. Hence, option (D) is incorrect. Now, consider the lines, "I would hesitate to invest early in any foreign intruder who seeks to flood France with the cheapest Asian textiles…That is why Wal-Mart has made its first European invasions during the past two years into price-conscious Germany." Price-conscious means liking cheap goods. Hence, (C) is the correct option. (500)

3. The company in which Archie Norman and friends invested $8 million is

(A) Aiming at opening retail outlets in Britain.
(B) Likely to be involved in the manufacture or sale of clothes.
(C) A small retail operation that is aiming to expand by buyouts.
(D) Not offering any product or service.
(E) None of the above.

Type: Inference
(D) In the second paragraph the author says, "In early November he and three friends invested $8 million in a shell company called Knutsford." A shell company means that it would not offer any product or service. Hence, (D) is correct. Although it is mentioned that Norman said Knutsford aimed to buy "undervalued retail operations", we cannot infer that it is planning to expand by buy-outs. So option (C) is wrong. Finally, there is no mention of an intention to open retail outlets in Britain or the likelihood of its involvement in the manufacture or sale of clothes. Thus, options (A) and (B) are also incorrect. (600).

4. Knutsford was worth $200 million the very next day because

(A) Archie Norman's association with Asda was enough to lure private investors.
(B) Investors believed that some retail operations were undervalued.
(C) Archie Norman had obtained $11 billion in cash from the sale of Asda.
(D) Retail operations were perceived as a very good investment.
(E) Knutsford was likely to buy out the bigger retail outlets in Britain.

Type: Inference
(B) In the second paragraph, the author states that Norman said that Knutsford aimed to buy ‘undervalued retail operations'. Investors jumped at the last shares of his company. Hence, we know that investors believed that retail operations were undervalued. The value of Norman's investment skyrocketed due to this fact, and thus, (B) is the correct option. No evidence in the passage suggests that Norman's association with Asda was enough to lure private investors that he obtained $11 billion in cash from the sale of Asda, that retail operations are perceived as a very good investment or that Knutsford was likely to buy out the bigger retail outlets in Britain. So options (A), (C), (D) and (E) are incorrect. (500)

5. Given what the passage says about the success of Wal-Mart, which of the following reforms, if carried out, would be most likely to insure the continued success of M & S?

(A) A complete overhaul of the supplier base to insure that it makes volume purchases at globally competitive rates.
(B) A marketing campaign to popularize its brand.
(C) Recruiting senior managers from outside and purchasing from global sellers without any purchase guarantee.
(D) Training staff for changes in the business environment
(E) Looking towards international rather than British trends and purchase accordingly.

Type: Inference
(A) The passage offers no clues that any of the following would help M & S maintain its success: a marketing campaign to popularize the brand, recruiting senior managers from outside and purchasing from global sellers without any purchase guarantee, training staff for a change in the business environment, or looking towards international rather than British trends and purchasing accordingly. Hence, (B), (C), (D) and (E) are not correct. However, in the second paragraph, Wal-Mart is said to be a threat because it can find the cheapest suppliers. If M & S replicates Wal-Mart's strategy by purchasing at cheaper prices, it will insure its continued success. Therefore, (A) is the correct option. (500)

6. With which of the following would Walmart have difficulty competing?

(A) Sainsbury
(B) Tesco
(C) Safeway
(D) Somerfield
(E) M & S

Type: Inference
(B) The last paragraph says, "The food market in Britain is challenging to enter for several reasons: there are planning restrictions against large out-of-town warehouses, gas taxes are high, and Tesco is already thriving as an efficient grocer in an overcrowded market." Therefore, (B) is correct. There is no evidence that Sainsbury, Safeway, Somerfield and M & S pose any threats for Wal-Mart. The passage, in fact, suggests the opposite. Hence, (A), (C), (D) and (E) are not correct. (400).

7. A hostile takeover would be unnecessary in the case of:

(A)  M & S
(B)  Sainsbury
(C)  Safeway
(D)  Tesco
(E)  Somerfield

Type: Inference
(E) The author says that, "The fifth largest, Somerfield, is trying to sell its 140 best stores, but will probably fail to sell its 350 worst ones." Hence, a hostile takeover is not necessary to beat out Somerfield. The company is already trying to sell its viable stores. Thus, (E) is the correct option. In the case of Sainsbury, Safeway, Tesco and M & S this does not hold true. Hence, (A), (B), (C) and (D) are incorrect. (500)

8. Which of the following is not mentioned as an obstacle to success in entering the British retail food market?

(A) Strict law on food preservation
(B) The need for large out-of-town warehouses
(C) The presence of a well-entrenched retail outlet
(D) An overcrowded grocery market.
(E) High taxes associated with transportation

Type: Detail of the passage
(A) The last paragraph mentions, "The food market in Britain is challenging to enter for several reasons: there are planning restrictions on large out-of-town warehouses, gas taxes are high, and Tesco is already thriving as an efficient grocer in an overcrowded market." Thus, only A is not mentioned as an obstacle. (300).

9. One may infer that France is less susceptible to foreign takeovers mainly because

(A)  It does not believe in free trade.
(B)  It is not very price conscious.
(C)  It is a closed economy.
(D)  It is biased against American products.
(E)  It is very nationalistic.

Type: Inference
(E) Essentially, the French seem to believe in protectionism. As the author states, "Foreign takeovers seem less likely to succeed in France, where supermarkets are amalgamating into national champions, protected by local authorities…I would hesitate to invest early in any foreign intruder who seeks to flood France with the cheapest Asian textiles and most efficiently produced American hormone-treated beef.” Even the “cheapest Asian textiles” do not lure the French so price consciousness is not a possible reason. Therefore, option (B) is wrong. Although a mention of American beef is made, there is no evidence of a bias. So option (D) is incorrect. Why does France believe in protectionism? A philosophical objection to free trade, or nationalistic fervor? Free trade and a closed economy are not referred to at all, so we cannot infer either of these are the reasons. Thus, options (A) and (C) are also incorrect. On the other hard, the passage mentions that French supermarkets are becoming national champions and that this is the reason that they are being protected. Therefore, (E) is correct. (600)

Section 6: Short Passages 1 - Tammany Hall

Note: short passages need to be done differently.Low skill level passages less than 85 lines should be read slowly.

Tammany Hall was the name given to the Democratic Party political machine that dominated New York City politics from 1854 through 1934. That eighty-year period marks the time in which Tammany was the city's driving political force.

Tammany is forever linked with the rise of the Irish in American politics. Beginning in 1846, Irish immigrants fleeing the great Irish famine began arriving in New York. Equipped with a knowledge of English and what some have called a genius for politics, the Irish quickly assumed a key role within Tammany. Viewing politics as a path out of poverty, they found in Tammany an ally in the struggle to survive the hellish conditions of New York slums. In exchange for jobs, loans, turkeys at Christmas and other favors, they provided organizational skills, governing capacity and their votes on election day. The Irish would come to dominate Tammany, supplying its leaders from 1872 through 1924.

By 1854 Tammany's lineage and support from immigrants had combined to make it a powerful force in New York politics. In that year, the Society elected its first New York City mayor. As its power grew, Tammany's "bosses", called the Grand Sachem, and their supporters enriched themselves through means legal and illegal. Perhaps the most famous boss of all was William M. "Boss" Tweed. Though not Irish himself, Tweed was elected with the support of Irish immigrants. His outsized personality projected through his 300 pound frame and gargantuan appetites--he was famous for devouring steaks and oysters by the plateful at Delmonico's--made him a colorful if controversial figure. His infamously corrupt reign was brazen enough to incite an attempt at reform in the early 1870s. Rutherford B. Hayes's involvement in this effort contributed to his success in the election of 1876. New York minister Charles Henry Parkhurst publicly denounced the Hall in 1892, which led to a Grand Jury investigation, the appointment of the Lexow Committee and the election of a reform mayor in 1894.

1. The author is primarily concerned with which of the following?

(A) The plight of Irish immigrants in New York City
(B) An important time in the history of democracy
(C) A venue in which the Irish joined the political arena
(D) Corruption in New York City politics
(E) New York City politics and how they differ from those of other cities

2. According to the passage, the Irish joined Tammany because:

I. They felt comfortable around other immigrants
II. Tammany helped the Irish meet their basic needs
III. Tammany provided the Irish with organizational skills

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) I and III only
(E) I, II, and III

3. We can infer from the passage that:

(A) The Irish continued to dominate Tammany after 1924
(B) Tammany helped the Irish in order to gain political power
(C) The Irish immigrants learned to be politically savvy in Ireland
(D) Tammany was located near the slums in which the Irish lived
(E) Immigrant groups which were unfamiliar with English were not involved in politics of New York City

4. The tone of the passage is:

(A) Indignant
(B) Skeptical
(C) Objective
(D) Optimistic
(E) Reverent

5. What does the author mean by “His infamously corrupt regime was brazen enough to incite an attempt at reform” as used in the last paragraph?

(A) Tweed was a bold mayor who called for reform among New York City government.
(B) Tweed was a corrupt mayor and did his best to keep this out of the public eye. However, he was unsuccessful.
(C) Tweed did much to help immigrants even though he was a corrupt leader.
(D) Tweed's corruption was so noticeable that other city officials decided to take control of the situation.
(E) Tweed chose to make boldly reform Tammany during his mayorship.

6. The author's primary objective in writing the passage is to:

(A) Honor the great bosses of Tammany.
(B) Defend Tammany's political influence.
(C) Criticize political corruption.
(D) Present a new theory about immigrant self-empowerment.
(E) Illuminate a time in the history of politics.

Answer Explanations:

1. The author is primarily concerned with which of the following?

(A) The plight of Irish immigrants in New York City
(B) An important time in the history of democracy
(C) A venue in which the Irish joined the political arena
(D) Corruption in New York City politics
(E) New York City politics and how they differ from those of other cities

Type: Main Idea
(C) is correct because it addresses the passage's topic (Tammany) and scope (Irish involvement). (A) is incorrect because it only mentions the Irish and not Tammany. (B) is too vague. (D) is only mentioned in the last paragraph. (E) is incorrect because the passage never discusses the politics of a city other than New York. (300)

2. According to the passage, the Irish joined Tammany because:

I. They felt comfortable around other immigrants
II. Tammany helped the Irish meet their basic needs
III. Tammany provided the Irish with organizational skills

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) I and III only
(E) I, II, and II

Type: Detail of the passage
(B). Statement I is incorrect because it is never mentioned in the passage. II is a rephrasing of the line "In exchange for jobs, loans, turkeys at Christmas and other favors, they provided organizational skills, governing capacity and their votes on election day." III misconstrues the meaning of the aforementioned line which refers to the Irish providing Tammany with organizational skills, not the other way around. (400)

3. We can infer from the passage that:

(A) The Irish continued to dominate Tammany after 1924
(B) Tammany helped the Irish in order to gain political power
(C) The Irish immigrants learned to be politically savvy in Ireland
(D) Tammany was located near the slums in which the Irish lived
(E) Immigrant groups which were unfamiliar with English were not involved in politics of New York City

Type: Inference
(B). All answer choices besides (B) have no inferential basis. One cannot assume based on the passage that (A) the Irish dominated Tammany after 1924, when nothing of the kind is mentioned and the line "The Irish would come to dominate Tammany, supplying its leaders from 1872 through 1924" seems to indicate the opposite. There is no basis for (C) or (E). The only time that either Irish political savviness or English language are mentioned is the line "All we know is that the Irish "Equipped with a knowledge of English and what some have called a genius for politics, the Irish quickly assumed a key role within Tammany." Being provided with only this information, we cannot conclude either answer choice. (D) does not appear in the passage in any way. (300)

4. The tone of the passage is:

(A) Indignant
(B) Skeptical
(C) Objective
(D) Optimistic
(E) Reveren

Type: Tone
(C). The author is not very opinioned in this passage. He or she simply tells the story of Tammany and provides related information on who was involved with it. Therefore the tone of the passage is objective. The author does not pass judgment on the corruption, and is not negative in tone, so (A) and (B) are incorrect. The author also does not use language that is positive, so (D) is wrong, and (E) too. Reverent is an extreme choice. It would be hard to describe a corrupt political organization with reverence. (500)

5. What does the author mean by “His infamously corrupt regime was brazen enough to incite an attempt at reform” as used in the last paragraph?

(A) Tweed was a bold mayor who called for reform among New York City government.
(B) Tweed was a corrupt mayor and did his best to keep this out of the public eye. However, he was unsuccessful.
(C) Tweed did much to help immigrants even though he was a corrupt leader.
(D) Tweed's corruption was so noticeable that other city officials decided to take control of the situation.
(E) Tweed chose to make boldly reform Tammany during his mayorship.

Type: Definition of a word of phrase
(D). The sentence explains that Tweed's regime, which includes both Tweed himself and his administration, was corrupt, and so brazen (bold) in its corruption, that his regime incited (brought about) attempts at government reform. (A) misconstrues the sentence to mean that Tweed called for the reform, when, in fact, others called for it to be made upon him. (B) is partially correct, but does not go far enough. (C) is true but does not provide the correct meaning of the particular sentence in question. (E), like (A) misconstrues the sentence's wording. (600)

6. The author's primary objective in writing the passage is to:

(A) Honor the great bosses of Tammany.
(B) Defend Tammany's political influence.
(C) Criticize political corruption.
(D) Present a new theory about immigrant self-empowerment.
(E) Illuminate a time in the history of politics.

Type: Purpose of the passage
(E). As we found in question 4, this passage is quite objective. Therefore the purpose of the passage cannot relate to the author's opinion. Thus, (B) and (C) are wrong. The author never argues for or against Tammany. (A) is more subtle, but still requires author opinion to be correct. In order for the author's objective to be to honor Tammany's bosses, the author would have to praise them somewhere in the passage, and he or she does not do so. (D) does not contain opinion, but it is incorrect because there is no theory presented in the passage. It is simply a short historical piece, detailing Tammany's major figures and Irish involvement. (700)

Section 6: Short Passages 2 - Women in Pop Music

Although the twentieth century saw the rise of women as professional musicians, the majority of composers and performers were, and still are, men. The music industry in the U.S. and Britain overwhelmingly reflects the values of a patriarchal society; the success or failure of a female artist is based largely on her physical appearance and gendered performance style. Blues, rock, and pop began as genres dominated by men, and thus included styles of dress, lyrics, and sound born of a male perspective. The history of these genres, then, is also a history of women seeking to locate their space within a predominately masculine musical environment.

Women are always judged, in part, on their image, and it is through the manipulation of this image that some women artists have been able to push the boundaries of gender identity. Women have been able to enter popular genres of music either by playing with the aesthetics of masculinity, or by playing into a male expectation of femininity. Sexuality, therefore, is a tool women continue to use to shape and reshape their place within popular music.

Pushing boundaries is a balancing act, however, and a contradictory process. In order to gain access to the world of popular music, a female artist must at once be pleasing her audience, and, at the same time, remain true to herself as a woman. A desire to be too much “one of the guys” can lead to identity problems and ultimately to self-destruction. An artist's use of irony or parody may run the risk of being mistaken for genuineness, causing her to be objectified. Working within the limits of popular music has proven difficult and dangerous for women. But due to the professionalism and inventiveness of many female performers, the space for women in popular music is being expanded and redefined.

1. According to the passage, successful women in popular music

I. parody their gender
II. are under constant scrutiny by audiences
III. use sexuality to their advantage

(A) I only
(B) III only
(C) I and III
(D) II and III
(E) I, II, and III

2. The passage suggests which of the following about the 20th century?

(A) Female musicians were tolerated because of their physical appearance.
(B) Professional male musicians did not respect women.
(C) Song lyrics changed over time to fit the most current female perspective.
(D) Rapid technological advancements helped women achieve notoriety in music.
(E) Women's musical progress happened slowly and with much struggle.

3. Which of the following best describes summarizes the main idea of the last paragraph?

(A) Entering the music world is not easy for women but they are making progress.
(B) Parody and irony are the only ways in which women can hope to achieve success in music.
(C) Women in popular music cannot escape being judged on their appearance.
(D) Women assume stereotypically female appearances in order to attract audiences.
(E) Popular music has space for women if only they would seek it out.

4. The author is likely to have which of the following attitudes when advising women about the music business?

(A) persuasive
(B) cautionary
(C) ambivalence
(D) discouraging
(E) hostile

5. From which of the following sources was the passage most likely excerpted?

(A) A newspaper editorial
(B) An American history textbook
(C) A book on gender studies
(D) A teaching manual
(E) A music magazine

Answer Explanations:

1. According to the passage, successful women in popular music

I. parody their gender
II. are under constant scrutiny by audiences
III. use sexuality to their advantage

(A) I only
(B) III only
(C) I and III
(D) II and III
(E) I, II, and III

Type: Detail of the passage
(D). The passage states "In order to gain access to the world of popular music, a female artist must at once be pleasing her audience, and, at the same time, remain true to herself as a woman," indicating that audience opinion is central to a woman's success in music, so II is correct. III is also correct because the passage states: "Sexuality, therefore, is a tool women continue to use to shape and reshape their place within popular music." However, I is not stated in the passage. The passage states that parody can often lead to objectification. While it can be useful at times, it does not guarantee success and therefore is incorrect. (500)

2. The passage suggests which of the following about the 20th century?

(A) Female musicians were tolerated because of their physical appearance.
(B) Professional male musicians did not respect women.
(C) Song lyrics changed over time to fit the most current female perspective.
(D) Rapid technological advancements helped women achieve notoriety in music.
(E) Women's musical progress happened slowly and with much struggle.

Type: Inference
(E). Only (E) is an inference based on actual information contained in the passage. (A) is partly true but the passage doesn't really mention tolerance; its focus is on acceptance of women in the music world. (B), (C) and (D) are never mentioned in the passage. (E) gets to the author's main point, and is backed up by several parts of the passage, which discuss the role of women in music and how it has changed over the century, with much trouble. (400)

3. Which of the following best describes summarizes the main idea of the last paragraph?

(A) Entering the music world is not easy for women but they are making progress.
(B) Parody and irony are the only ways in which women can hope to achieve success in music.
(C) Women in popular music cannot escape being judged on their appearance.
(D) Women assume stereotypically female appearances in order to attract audiences.
(E) Popular music has space for women if only they would seek it out.

Type: Main Idea
(A). (C) brings up an idea from the first paragraph and therefore missed the main idea of the last. (B) misconstrues an issue in the last paragraph, while (D) brings up a detail from the last paragraph but misses the main idea. (E) is never stated anywhere in the paragraph and very much goes against the author's tone in the passage as a whole. (300)

4. The author is likely to have which of the following attitudes when advising women about the music business?

(A) persuasive
(B) cautionary
(C) ambivalence
(D) discouraging
(E) hostile

Type: Tone
(B). The author states in the last paragraph that popular music careers for women are "a balancing act" and that "Working within the limits of popular music has proven difficult and dangerous for women." Clearly the author does not view popular music as welcoming towards women. The author is also not particularly positive in his or her description of the music world. Therefore the author is unlikely to be "persuasive" toward women seeking entrance into a music career. The author's knowledge of the subject and subsequent remarks about women show him or her to have a real opinion, and not be ambivalent. Hostile is too extreme for this author; just take a look at her subdued descriptions. If this essay were hostile, it would be very different in its writing style. Though the authors somewhat negative assessment of the music industry may cause you to think the answer is "discouraging," the author does however, explain that some women have been able to make real progress when he or she says "But due to the professionalism and inventiveness of many female performers, the space for women in popular music is being expanded and redefined." Therefore the closest attitude would be "cautionary." The author believes some women can be successful, but would likely warn any she met to be careful in the business. (700)

5. From which of the following sources was the passage most likely excerpted?

(A) A newspaper editorial
(B) An American history textbook
(C) A book on gender studies
(D) A teaching manual
(E) A music magazine

Type: Category of Writing
(C). The passage is most likely to come from a book on gender studies because it describes the challenges women face in a particular arena. It is not likely to be a newspaper editorial (it contains historical information and has little to do with events in the news) nor is it likely to come from a teaching manual (it does not contain directions or lessons) nor an American history textbook (the passage contains British, as well as U.S. history). A music magazine will contain articles on current trends in music, reviews, interviews, etc. This passage is too general and the language is a bit too sophisticated for a music magazine. (500)

This passage is adapted from "Women in Popular Music" Rebecca Pronsky (2002) Brown University.

Section 6: Short Passages 3 - Abiogenesis

Aristotelian abiogenesis, also known as spontaneous generation, was the theory according to which fully formed living organisms sometimes arise from not-living matter. Aristotle explicitly taught this form of abiogenesis, and laid it down as an observed fact that some animals spring from putrid matter, that plant lice arise from the dew which falls on plants, that fleas are developed from putrid matter, that mice come from dirty hay, and so forth.

The first step in the scientific refutation of the theory of Aristotelian abiogenesis was taken by the Italian Francesco Redi, who, in 1668, proved that no maggots were bred in meat on which flies were prevented by wire screens from laying their eggs. From the seventeenth century onwards it was gradually shown that, at least in the case of all the higher and readily visible organisms, spontaneous generation did not occur, but that omne vivum ex ovo, every living thing came from a pre-existing living thing.

The invention of the microscope carried the refutation further. In 1683 Antoni van Leeuwenhoek discovered bacteria, and it was soon found that however carefully organic matter might be protected by screens, or by being placed in stoppered receptacles, putrefaction set in, and was invariably accompanied by the appearance of myriads of bacteria and other low organisms. Then, in 1768, Lazzaro Spallanzani proved that microbes came from the air, and could be killed by boiling. His work paved the way for Louis Pasteur.

It was due chiefly to Louis Pasteur that the occurrence of abiogenesis in the microscopic world was disproved as much as its occurrence in the macroscopic world. If organic matter were first sterilized and then prevented from contamination from without, putrefaction did not occur, and the matter remained free from microbes. The presence of bacteria, or their spores, is so universal that only extreme precautions guard against a re-infection of the sterilized material. It was thus concluded definitely that all known living organisms arise only from pre-existing living organisms.

1. The passage suggests that Aristotle:

I. believed organisms emerge from non-living matter
II. was unaware of the microscopic world
III. was the only theorist to teach spontaneous generation

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) I and III only
(E) I, II and III

2. The author's main purpose is to:

(A) chronicle a set of scientific discoveries
(B) describe the history of bacteria science
(C) follow a theory from its creation to refutation
(D) theorize about the nature of the generation of life
(E) illuminate the meaning of a term in science

3. Redi's discovery is important because:

I. The discovery paved the way for Louis Pasteur's discovery
II. Redi proved that maggots arise from eggs, not from meat.
III. The discovery showed that life comes from other life.

(A) I only
(B) III only
(C) I and III only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II and III

4. The tone of the passage is:

(A) factual
(B) concerned
(C) inquisitive
(D) bombastic
(E) critical

5. This passage is most likely to be found in a(n):

(A) newspaper editorial
(B) biography of Artistole
(C) history textbook
(D) scientific journal
(E) encyclopedia

1. The passage suggests that Aristotle:

I. believed organisms emerge from non-living matter
II. was unaware of the microscopic world
III. was the only theorist to teach spontaneous generation

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) I and III only
(E) I, II and III

Type: Inference
(C) The first paragraph clearly states that Aristotle wrote about Abiogenesis: "the theory according to which fully formed living organisms sometimes arise from not-living matter." Thus, I is correct. The third paragraph explains that once the microscopic world was discovered it became clear that bacteria was everywhere and as soon as an organism began to decay, bacterial life was everywhere. Had Aristotle known this, he probably would have changed his theory. The microscopic world was discovered many centuries after Aristotle, so he was definitely unaware of it, making II correct. Although Aristotle may have originated the idea of Abiogenesis, he is unlikely to be the only theorist to teach the theory. Furthermore, the passage never states that Aristotle was the only teacher, so III cannot be correct. (500)

2. The author's main purpose is to:

(A) chronicle a set of scientific discoveries
(B) describe the history of bacteria science
(C) follow a theory from its creation to refutation
(D) theorize about the nature of the generation of life
(E) illuminate the meaning of a term in science

Type: Purpose of the passage
(C) The first paragraph describes Aristotelian Abiogenesis: the theory of spontaneous generation. The second, third and fourth paragraphs explain how over time the theory was slowly refuted due to new discoveries in science. Thus (C) is correct. (A) is partly true, but the author's purpose is to focus on the theory of Abiogenesis and how it was proved wrong, not just to write a history of discoveries that were made. (B) is incorrect because bacteria is mentioned only in the third and fourth paragraphs, and comes up as part of the proof for the Abiogenesis theory being wrong, not as a general history of bacteria science. (D) confuses some of the ideas in the passage with the actual purpose of the passage. While all the scientists in the passage theorized about the generation of life, the purpose of the passage itself is not to theorize. The passage does (E) "illuminate the meaning of a term in science" but that is only a small part of the passage and not the main purpose of it. (600)

3. Redi's discovery is important because:

I. The discovery paved the way for Louis Pasteur's discovery
II. Redi proved that maggots arise from eggs, not from meat.
III. The discovery showed that life comes from other life.

(A) I only
(B) III only
(C) I and III only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II and III

Type: Detail of the passage
(D) I is incorrect because Spallanzani's experiment, not Redi's, paved the way for Pasteur's. II is correct, because the passage states "Redi...proved that no maggots were bred in meat on which flies were prevented by wire screens from laying their eggs." III is correct, because the next sentence states that "From the seventeenth century onwards it was gradually shown that...every living thing came from a pre-existing living thing." Thus, Redi was the first to show that life (maggots) came from other life (eggs). (500)

4. The tone of the passage is:

(A) factual
(B) concerned
(C) inquisitive
(D) bombastic
(E) critical

Type: Tone
(A) The author simply describes a theory and how it was refuted and is completely factual in his or her retelling of history. Since the author is detached from personal opinion, he or she cannot be (E) critical. The passage contains no displays of emotion. Thus, (B) and (D) are also incorrect. The author also does not ask any questions in the passage. The question that comes up in the passage is that of whether Abiogenesis occurs. However, the question is examined and ultimately answered; it is not posed by the author. (600)

5. This passage is most likely to be found in a(n):

(A) newspaper editorial
(B) biography of Artistole
(C) history textbook
(D) scientific journal
(E) encyclopedia

Type: Category of Writing
(E) This passage discusses one scientific theory and its refutation. It is likely to be found in an encyclopedia under the term "Abiogenesis." The passage's focus on a single theory makes it unlikely to appear in a history textbook (C), as a history textbook is too general to go into detail on one specific theory. The theory is also an ancient theory which was completely proven wrong by the time of Louis Pasteur, over a century ago. Because the passage discusses the past it cannot be from a (D) scientific journal. The passage also only specifically discusses Aristotle in the first paragraph, so it is unlikely to come from his biography (B). Because, as we said in question 4, the passage contains no opinion or emotion, it cannot be from an editorial. (700)

Section 6: Short Passages 4 - Turbulent Flow

Turbulent flow over a boundary is a complex phenomenon for which there is no complete theory. Nevertheless, much experimental data has been collected on flows over solid surfaces, both in the laboratory and in nature, so that from an engineering perspective, the situation is well understood. The force exerted on a surface varies with the roughness of that surface and approximately with the square of the wind speed at a fixed height above it. A wind of 10 meters per second (about 20 knots, or 22 miles per hour) measured at a height of 10 meters will produce a force of some 30 tons per square kilometer on a field of mown grass, or of about 70 tons per square kilometer on a ripe wheat field. On a really smooth surface, such as glass, the force is only about 10 tons per square kilometer.

When wind blows over water, it is more complicated. The roughness of the water is not a given characteristic of the surface but depends on the wind itself. Not only that, the elements that constitute the roughness, the waves, themselves are mostly in the direction of the wind. Recent evidence indicates that a large portion of the momentum transferred from the air into the water goes into waves rather than directly into making water currents; only as the waves break or otherwise lose energy does their momentum become available to generate currents. Waves carry a substantial amount of both energy and momentum (about as much as is carried by the wind in a layer about one wavelength thick), and so the wave-generation process is far from negligible.

A violently wavy surface belies its appearance by acting, as far as the wind is concerned, as though it were very smooth. At a wind of 10 meters per second, the force on a wavy surface is much less than the force would be over mown grass and scarcely more than over glass; in light winds (2 or 3 meters per second) the force on a wavy surface is even less than it would be on glass. The waves’ motion seems to modify the airflow so that air slips over the surface more freely than if it were smooth. This is not the case at higher wind speeds (above about 5 meters per second), but the force remains quite low relative to other surfaces.

Unfortunately, there are no direct observations under conditions when high winds, greater than about 12 meters per second, have had time and fetch (the distance over water) enough to raise substantial waves. A few indirect studies, however, suggest that the water’s apparent roughness may increase under high wind conditions, so that the force on the surface increases more rapidly than the square of the wind speed.

If the force increases at least as the square of the wind speed, high-wind conditions will produce effects far more important than their frequency of occurrence would suggest, as five hours of 60-knot storm winds will put more momentum into the water than a week of 10-knot breezes. If it should be shown that, for high winds, the force on the surface increases even more than the square of the wind speed, then the transfer of momentum to the ocean will turn out to be dominated by the occasional storm rather than by the long-term average winds.

1. According to the passage, several hours of storm winds (60 miles per hour) over water would:

(A) be similar to the force exerted by light winds for several hours over glass
(B) create a surface roughness which reduces the force exerted by the high wind
(C) be more significant in increasing the momentum of the water than constant light winds over a period of a few days
(D) create a force not greater than 6 times the force of a 10-mile-per-hour wind
(E) directly affect water current

2. The main purpose of the passage is to discuss:

(A) oceanic momentum and current
(B) turbulent flow of wind over water
(C) wind blowing over water as related to causing tidal flow
(D) the significance of high wind conditions on ocean momentum
(E) experiments in wind force

.
3. The author’s suggestion that the transfer of momentum to the ocean is dominated by the occasional storm would be most weakened if which of the following were true:

(A) air momentum is converted directly into increased ocean current
(B) high speed winds slip over waves as easily as low speed winds
(C) waves do not move in the direction of wind
(D) the force exerted on a wheat field was the same as on mown grass
(E) the force of wind under normal conditions increased as the square of wind speed

Answer Explanations:

1. According to the passage, several hours of storm winds (60 miles per hour) over water would:

(A) be similar to the force exerted by light winds for several hours over glass
(B) create a surface roughness which reduces the force exerted by the high wind
(C) be more significant in increasing the momentum of the water than constant light winds over a period of a few days
(D) create a force not greater than 6 times the force of a 10-mile-per-hour wind
(E) directly affect water current

Type: Main Idea
(C) In the last paragraph, we are told that "several hours of 60-knot storm winds will put more momentum into the water than a week of 10-knot breezes." In this question we are asked about winds of 60 miles per hour. How do these winds compare? If we look back to the first paragraph, we see that 20 knots is equal to 22 miles per hour. Therefore, these are roughly equivalent measures of comparison, and we can relate the information in the last paragraph to our question, choosing C, that the high winds contribute more momentum to the ocean than do the lighter winds over a longer period.
Choice A is not correct, since we are told in the fourth paragraph that at 10 meters per second (equivalent to 22 miles per hour), the surface force is slightly more that the force over glass. Since this is a much greater wind, we would expect the force to be even greater, so choice A is not correct. Choice B suggests that the roughness created by the waves would actually decrease the force of the wind. According to paragraph three, this is true, though only at lower wind speeds, not the high speeds described in this question. Choice D compares the relative forces of two winds. Though you might guess that a wind that is six times faster might exert a force six times greater, we are told in the passage that the force actually appears to increase proportionally with the square of the wind speed. Thus, the force is closer to thirty-six times greater for the higher wind.

2. The main purpose of the passage is to discuss:

(A) oceanic momentum and current
(B) turbulent flow of wind over water
(C) wind blowing over water as related to causing tidal flow
(D) the significance of high wind conditions on ocean momentum
(E) experiments in wind force

Type: Definition of a word of phrase
(B) The main idea of this passage is the turbulent flow of wind over water. The passage introduces the topic in the first paragraph, by describing the basic physics of turbulent flow over surfaces. The next four paragraphs then expand this concept to water, and illustrate the complications in understanding the force of wind on the water surface. Choices A and C are not correct, in that these concepts are only briefly mentioned in passing. High winds, like in choice D, are mentioned frequently, though not specifically for their effect on the momentum of the ocean. Indeed, the whole passage is applicable to water in general, not only the ocean. Choice E is not correct. Although experiments in wind force are described here, it is only to bolster the author’s argument, not as the main subject of the passage.

3. The author’s suggestion that the transfer of momentum to the ocean is dominated by the occasional storm would be most weakened if which of the following were true:

(A) air momentum is converted directly into increased ocean current
(B) high speed winds slip over waves as easily as low speed winds
(C) waves do not move in the direction of wind
(D) the force exerted on a wheat field was the same as on mown grass
(E) the force of wind under normal conditions increased as the square of wind speed

Type: Inference
(B) The suggestion that the occasional storm will make a large contribution to momentum relies on the main argument that high winds can contribute more to the momentum of water than light winds (see paragraphs two and four, specifically). High winds can increase the intensity of waves, or increase the apparent roughness of the surface, which allows the exertion of more force. With the increased roughness, the force increases even more than the square of the wind speed (which is the usual estimation of the force exerted by wind on a surface). Choices A and D are not relevant to the statement, and thus would not weaken it if they were true. Choice C, if true, would affect the transfer of momentum from both high and low winds to water, so this is not a good choice. Choice E actually is true, and does not weaken the argument.

Section 6: Short Passages 5 - Full-TimeUnemployment

The full-time unemployment rate cannot be determined with great precision. One thing is certain: it cannot be zero or even close to zero. A zero unemployment rate would mean that no one ever entered or re-entered the labor force, that no one ever quit a job or was laid off, and that for new entrants or re-entrants, the process of searching for a job consumed no time. Moreover, full-time employment cannot be defined as an equality between the number of unemployed persons and the number of unfilled jobs. By this definition, almost any unemployment rate could be consistent with the full-time employment rate.

The customary definition of the full-time U.S. unemployment rate is the lowest rate of unemployment that can be attained without resulting in an accelerated rate of inflation, given the existing economic conditions. However, no one can be sure exactly what the unemployment rate is, based on this definition, since it is not possible to predict exactly how great a change in the rate of inflation will be associated with any given change in the unemployment rate. In the early 1960s, President Kennedy's Council of Economic Advisors (CEA) determined that 4 percent was the best estimate of the full-time U.S. unemployment rate. That rate was based on data collected during the period from mid-1955 to mid-1957, when the U.S. unemployment rate fluctuated around an average of 4.1 percent and the consumer price index advanced at an average rate of 2.5 percent per year. Although a 4-percent U.S. unemployment rate may have been consistent with an acceptably low rate of inflation in the mid-1950s, by the 1960s this proposition had become increasingly doubtful. Our experience since then has been such that those who accept the customary definition of the full-time U.S. unemployment rate now consider 4.5 percent to be the optimal rate under the existing circumstances.

The principal reason for this upward adjustment in the full-time U.S. unemployment rate is the changed composition of the labor force. As the labor force becomes increasingly composed of elderly people and women, the number of workers has increased. Similarly, the number of workers who are now eligible to collect benefits has increased. To the extent that these changes have increased voluntary and involuntary layoff rates and the average length of time unemployed persons spend looking for work, the full-time unemployment rate has risen.


1) The passage states that the full-time unemployment rate represents:

(A) A rate consistent with the greatest number of job opportunities for the greatest number of workers.
(B) The greatest degree of stability in the placement of the labor force that is practically attainable.
(C) A figure below which unemployment is unlikely to fall without having negative economic effects.
(D) an ideal matching of unemployed workers with the number and type of unfilled jobs available.
(E) A value that cannot be determined.


2) According to the passage, all of the following factors must be considered in estimating the full-time unemployment rate EXCEPT:

(A) The percentage of women in the work force.
(B) The ratio of the number of unemployed workers to the number of vacant positions.
(C) The strength of inflationary tendencies in the economic system.
(D) The number of young people in the job market.
(E) The availability of financial help for those who are out of work.


3) The author is most likely a(n):

(A) politician
(B) economist
(C) statistician
(D) journalist
(E) feminist


4) The author believes that a zero unemployment rate is:

(A) imminent
(B) plausible
(C) convincing
(D) unlikely
(E) impossible


5) The purpose of the third paragraph is to:

(A) explain how unemployment works.
(B) make a prediction about the unemployment rate.
(C) provide evidence for a statement made in paragraph 2.
(D) contribute to the overall message of the passage.
(E) define a trend in unemployment history.


6) The passage implies that the extension of unemployment insurance to new groups of workers and the lengthening of the period for benefit payments may have encouraged:

I. Layoffs of workers by employers.
II. Abandonment of unsatisfactory jobs by employees.
III. Longer periods of job hunting by unemployed workers.

(A) I only
(B) I and II only
(C) I and III only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III


7) The passage provides information to answer which of the following questions?

(A) Why is a zero unemployment rate unlikely ever to be attained?
(B) What is the likely future trend of the full-employment unemployment rate?
(C) Why has the percentage of younger workers in the job market increased?
(D) What rate of inflation is generally considered to be the highest acceptable rate?
(E)To what extent do workers tend to quit their jobs as a result of increased unemployment benefits?


8) The author’s attitude toward the existence of a zero unemployment rate is one of

(A) perplexity
(B) uncertainty
(C) suspicion
(D) indignation
(E) disdain


9) The purpose of the second paragraph is to:

(A) explain the complex process in which a term was defined.
(B) express doubt about the validity of a term.
(C) provide statistical evidence for the resolution of a conflict.
(D) show the role of government in creating unemployment.
(E) defend a diverse group of definitions for one term.


Answer Explanations:

1) The passage states that the full-time unemployment rate represents:

(A) A rate consistent with the greatest number of job opportunities for the greatest number of workers.
(B) The greatest degree of stability in the placement of the labor force that is practically attainable.
(C) A figure below which unemployment is unlikely to fall without having negative economic effects.
(D) an ideal matching of unemployed workers with the number and type of unfilled jobs available.
(E) A value that cannot be determined.


Type: Detail of the Passage
(C). This definition can be found in the first sentence of paragraph two: “The customary definition of the full-time U.S. unemployment rate is the lowest rate of unemployment that can be attained without resulting in an accelerated rate of inflation, given the existing economic conditions.”


2) According to the passage, all of the following factors must be considered in estimating the full-time unemployment rate EXCEPT:

(A) The percentage of women in the work force.
(B) The ratio of the number of unemployed workers to the number of vacant positions.
(C) The strength of inflationary tendencies in the economic system.
(D) The number of young people in the job market.
(E) The availability of financial help for those who are out of work.



Type: Detail of the Passage
(B). Choices A and D are both based on the fourth paragraph, where the importance of the age (number of elderly workers) and gender-specific (women's) shares of the work force is discussed. Choice C is implied in the passage as a whole, particularly in the second and third paragraphs, which discuss the need to vary the estimated full-time unemployment rate as inflationary tendencies vary. The last paragraph suggests choice E. Choice B, however, is clearly ruled out by the last two sentences of paragraph 1.


3) The author is most likely a(n):

(A) politician
(B) economist
(C) statistician
(D) journalist
(E) feminist


Type: Identity of the author
(B). The author is clearly studied in the unemployment area and has a full knowledge of historical trends and mathematics. Thus he or she is likely to be an economist. He or she is unlikely to be a politician, since there is no bias or ideology. The main focus is the trends, not statistics, so (C), though close, is incorrect. (D) is incorrect because the author is not discussing current events and (E) is also incorrect because the author only discusses women’s employment in the final paragraph and does not state any political feeling on the issue.


4) The author believes that a zero unemployment rate is:

(A) imminent
(B) plausible
(C) convincing
(D) unlikely
(E) impossible


Type: Tone
(E). The author states “One thing is certain: it cannot be zero or even close to zero.” Thus, according to the author, a zero unemployment rate is not something that can or ever will happen. It is therefore impossible.


5) The purpose of the third paragraph is to:

(A) explain how unemployment works.
(B) make a prediction about the unemployment rate.
(C) provide evidence for a statement made in paragraph 2.
(D) contribute to the overall message of the passage.
(E) define a trend in unemployment history.


Type: Function of a part of the passage
(C). The second paragraph presents the issue of adjusting the full-time unemployment rate over the years, but it is not until paragraph 3 that we understand why this needed to be done: the composition of the labor force had changed. Therefore, the purpose of paragraph 3 is to provide evidence for a statement made in paragraph 2.


6) The passage implies that the extension of unemployment insurance to new groups of workers and the lengthening of the period for benefit payments may have encouraged:

I. Layoffs of workers by employers.
II. Abandonment of unsatisfactory jobs by employees.
III. Longer periods of job hunting by unemployed workers.

(A) I only
(B) I and II only
(C) I and III only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III


Type: Inference
(E). All three possibilities are implied by the last sentence of the passage. This is tricky. This question is essentially asking what are the consequences of the demographic changes described in the passage.


7) The passage provides information to answer which of the following questions?

(A) Why is a zero unemployment rate unlikely ever to be attained?
(B) What is the likely future trend of the full-employment unemployment rate?
(C) Why has the percentage of younger workers in the job market increased?
(D) What rate of inflation is generally considered to be the highest acceptable rate?
(E)To what extent do workers tend to quit their jobs as a result of increased unemployment benefits?


Support for a premise
(A). The question in choice A is discussed in the first paragraph of the passage. The other questions may all be raised by the information provided in the passage, but none of them can be answered by the passage.


8) The author’s attitude toward the existence of a zero unemployment rate is one of

(A) perplexity
(B) uncertainty
(C) suspicion
(D) indignation
(E) disdain


Type: Tone
(C). In paragraph 1 the author says “… it cannot be zero or even close to zero.” The author clearly does not believe a zero unemployment rate is possible and even makes fun of the idea by explaining what it would look like: “A zero unemployment rate would mean that no one ever entered or re-entered the labor force, that no one ever quit a job or was laid off, and that for new entrants or re-entrants, the process of searching for a job consumed no time.” ‘Suspicion’ is the best match for the author’s feelings of the adjectives provided. (D) and (E) are too extreme.


9) The purpose of the second paragraph is to:

(A) explain the complex process in which a term was defined.
(B) express doubt about the validity of a term.
(C) provide statistical evidence for the resolution of a conflict.
(D) show the role of government in creating unemployment.
(E) defend a diverse group of definitions for one term.


Function of a part of the passage
(A) The second paragraph shows how the full-time unemployment rate was and is determined. It has changed over time and due to many factors and opinions. Therefore it was a complex process in which the term “full-time unemployment rate” was defined. (E) is tricky, but the author has no bias about the definitions, and simply presents them, without a defense.

Section 6: Short Passages 6 - Rupert Brooks

	NOTE: This essay is used in 800score GMAT Verbal 5. Do not read this essay if you intend to take all 5 verbal tests.

 

Rupert Brooke is dead. A telegram from the Admiral at Lemnos tells us that this life has closed at the moment when it seemed to have reached its springtime. A voice had become audible, a note had been struck, more true, more thrilling, more able to do justice to the nobility of our youth in arms engaged in this present war, than any other more able to express their thoughts of self-surrender, and with a power to carry comfort to those who watch them so intently from afar. The voice has been swiftly stilled. Only the echoes and the memory remain; but they will linger.

During the last few months of his life, months of preparation in gallant comradeship and open air, the poet-soldier told with all the simple force of genius the sorrow of youth about to die, and the sure triumphant consolations of a sincere and valiant spirit. He expected to die: he was willing to die for the dear England whose beauty and majesty he knew: and he advanced towards the brink in perfect serenity, with absolute conviction of the rightness of his country's cause and a heart devoid of hate for fellow-men.

The thoughts to which he gave expression in the very few incomparable war sonnets which he has left behind will be shared by many thousands of young men moving resolutely and blithely forward in this, the hardest, the cruelest, and the least-rewarded of all the wars that men have fought. They are a whole history and revelation of Rupert Brooke himself. Joyous, fearless, versatile, deeply instructed, with classic symmetry of mind and body, ruled by high undoubting purpose, he was all that one would wish England's noblest sons to be in the days when no sacrifice but the most precious is acceptable, and the most precious is that which is most freely proffered.

1. According to the passage, Rupert Brooke was:

I. a writer
II. a soldier
III. a scientist

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II
(D) I and III
(E) I, II, and III

2. What does the author mean by "this life has closed at the moment when it seemed to have reached its springtime."

(A) Brooke's life ended when he began to reach his artistic prime.
(B) Brooke suddenly died just as he was becoming a great solider.
(C) Brooke spoke for many young English men during wartime.
(D) Brooke had learned very much by the time he died.
(E) Brooke died in springtime before he could see the war end.

.
3. What is the author referring to when he says "no sacrifice but the most precious" (in the last sentence)?

(A) creativity
(B) guidance
(C) human life
(D) service
(E) comfort

4. We can infer from the passage that Rupert Brooke was:

(A) scholarly
(B) patriotic
(C) formal
(D) wealthy
(E) depressed

5. The tone of this passage is:

(A) sympathetic
(B) disappointed
(C) apathetic
(D) morbid
(E) lamenting

Answer Explanations:

	Distraction Alert: How good of a reader are you? Can you guess the author? The viewpoint is romantic reactionary. Who could have written this? And who is Rupert Brooke?

1. According to the passage, Rupert Brooke was:

I. a writer
II. a soldier
III. a scientist

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II
(D) I and III
(E) I, II, and III

Type: Detail of the passage
(C) The first sentence of the second paragraph calls Brooke "the poet-soldier" so I and II are correct. The passage never refers to Brooke as a scientist. (200)


2. What does the author mean by "this life has closed at the moment when it seemed to have reached its springtime."

(A) Brooke's life ended when he began to reach his artistic prime.
(B) Brooke suddenly died just as he was becoming a great solider.
(C) Brooke spoke for many young English men during wartime.
(D) Brooke had learned very much by the time he died.
(E) Brooke died in springtime before he could see the war end.

Type: Definition of a word of phrase
(A) The author is talking about how Brooke died just as he was writing his best poetry. "springtime" refers to a time of growth, in this case, Brooke's growth as a writer during the war. Therefore (A) is correct. (B) incorrectly refers to his ability to fight, while (C) makes a statement, that while true, does not answer the question. (D) is not discussed in the passage and (E) is too literal. (400)


3. What is the author referring to when he says "no sacrifice but the most precious" in the last sentence?

(A) creativity
(B) guidance
(C) human life
(D) service
(E) comfort

Type: Definition of a word of phrase
(C) Human life is the most precious, or significant, sacrifice one can make. The author shows Brooke to be a noble English man, because he volunteers to make this sacrifice. (A), (B), (D), and (E) can all be sacrifices, but in the case of Brooke, he gave up his life to the war effort. (400)


4. We can infer from the passage that Rupert Brooke was:

(A) scholarly
(B) patriotic
(C) formal
(D) wealthy
(E) depressed

Type: Inference
(B) The author says that Brooke "was willing to die for the dear England whose beauty and majesty he knew: and he advanced towards the brink in perfect serenity, with absolute conviction of the rightness of his country's cause and a heart devoid of hate for fellow-men," proving that Brooke was a patriotic person. There is no mention of him being specifically (A) scholarly, (C) formal, (D) wealthy, or (E) depressed. (500)


5. The tone of this passage is:

(A) sympathetic
(B) disappointed
(C) apathetic
(D) morbid
(E) lamenting

Type: Tone
(E) The passage celebrates Brooke's life, but the author is distinctly somber. Phrases like "only the echoes and the memory remain" exhibit this sentiment. The author mourns Brooke's death along with the death of soldiers Brooke wrote about: "the poet-soldier told with all the simple force of genius the sorrow of youth about to die, and the sure triumphant consolations of a sincere and valiant spirit." The author is (E) lamenting in tone. (To lament is to express grief or sorrow.) The author is a bit sympathetic to soldiers for their sacrifice, but it is not the overall tone of the passage. Thus (A) is incorrect. The author is not disappointed; he is proud of Brooke's accomplishments, so (B) is incorrect as well. Apathetic means showing no care or concern. Clearly the author cares about Brooke and his death, so (C) is incorrect. Though the passage discusses death, it is not morbid; that is too extreme of a choice, so (E) is incorrect. (700)

This passage is appeared in The Times on Monday, April 26, 1915, Winston ChurchillShort Passage 3 - Abiogenesis